Did Jesus Christ the son of God die for the sins of all people?

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Please quote exactly. Do not rephrase or reinterpret. Answer all questions directly. Failure to comply with all this is an automatic forfeit.


Disclaimer : Regardless of the setup for voting win or lose, The aim of this interaction, Is for those that view it, Learn and or take away anything that will amount to any constructive value ultimately. So that counts as anything that'll cause one to reconsider an idea, Understand a subject better, Help build a greater wealth of knowledge getting closer to truth. When either of us has accomplished that with any individual here, That's who the victor of the debate becomes.


Round 1

1 of 5
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Mal
Con #1

Present us holy scripture that Christ who was God the Father manifested in flesh, whom they seen as the Father, saw the works of the Father and handled him, died for all sinners.


You have the floor.

All quotes are from the Douay-Rheims Bible:

"Behold the Lamb of God, behold him who taketh away the sin of the world." - John 1:29

Not a select group of people but the world.

"For God so loved the world, as to give his only begotten Son; that whosoever believeth in him, may not perish, but may have life everlasting." - John 3:16

God so loved the world, not so loved a select number of people. We can choose to accept or reject God's love.

"Therefore, as by the offence of one, unto all men to condemnation; so also by the justice of one, unto all men to justification of life." - Romans 5:18

Adam's sin affected all. Jesus' atonement affects all.

"For the charity of Christ presseth us: judging this, that if one died for all, then all were dead. And Christ died for all; that they also who live, may not now live to themselves, but unto him who died for them, and rose again." 2 Corinthians 5:14-15

Notice the use of the word "all" used many times.

"For the grace of God our Saviour hath appeared to all men;" - Titus 2:11

How would all men have the chance to accept God if God did not die for all?

"And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world." - 1 John 2:2

John goes out of his way to say Jesus is not only the atonement for our sins but the whole world.


It would probably be a good idea to explain what your views on this subject are. After all, if Jesus didn't die for the whole world, for whom did He die?

Round 2

2 of 5
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Mal
Con #3

" "Behold the Lamb of God, behold him who taketh away the sin of the world." - John 1:29


Not a select group of people but the world."


The problem right out the gate is that instead of finding scripture that says "all people", the opposing side is being slothful with the assumption that the term "world" = "all people".


This is why it's important to find it as written exactly. This way I wouldn't be able to make a counterpoint about private interpretation which is invalid and the bible forbids that according to the book of scripture.


The term "world" it's not necessarily every person. Not just because the terms "world" and "all people" are completely different terms but the scriptures uses the term world in different ways.


The scriptures says "be in the world but not of the world".


So if it was every single person on the planet, this scripture would be saying things that are in the world that are also not of the world to not be of them having the same spirit of faith.


With this private interpretation of the word "world", the opposing side like many others would just make shipwreck of the scriptures.


If the lamb of God took away the sins of all people, what does that mean?


Nobody has anymore sin, nobody.


God freed everybody from sin.


What does it mean to be free from sin?


In the book of Romans chapter 6


"12 Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof."


This is what the "lusts" of the world are.


Scripture says in Titus 2 it says "denying ungodliness and worldly lusts".


Even though its "worldly" lusts, does it mean every single person?


It would, if you assume " world" is all people.


It's not all people as there are those that will be denying the lusts that OTHER PEOPLE in the WORLD have and are not free from and it has not been taken away.


We continue on in Romans 6 to explain about those that will let the lusts not reign.


"17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you.


18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness."


The people that Christ took the sin from are the ones baptized buried with Christ, so this is how they let it not reign because they were servants of sin. Scripture says "such were some of you " I believe, if not mistaken.


These particular people that were BURIED with Christ whom Christ took away the sin made free from sin.


Scripture say " If you abide in My word, you are My disciples indeed. And you shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free".


Scripture say " Therefore if the Son makes you free, you shall be free indeed".


So those that are free of sin , the ones with sin taken away are his disciples. Every person in the world is not a disciple.


Read on in Romans 6 where it says " But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life."


Every person will not have everlasting life.


Scripture say the dead both small and great.


In verse 23 "For the wages of sin is death"


Every person has not had the sin paid for which is why the person is dead yet while the person lives, yet dead standing before God awaiting the what? .... second death.


This is because the person has not been freed from that which costs death instead of what would result in an everlasting life.


So as we can see, we run into massive issues not rightly dividing the word "world".


This is the opposing side's issue. Relying on common interpretation instead of rightly dividing.

The scriptures have to be rightly divided.


The opposing side needs to get scripture that says Christ or basically the Savior died for ALL PEOPLE.


Only thing is , being that I just presented scripture that would negate that teaching, if such a verse did exist, that would have to be rightly divided.


I can think of a few passages where the opposing side could go to or should of started off with and those have to be properly handled.


"Adam's sin affected all. Jesus' atonement affects all.


"For the charity of Christ presseth us: judging this, that if one died for all, then all were dead. And Christ died for all; that they also who live, may not now live to themselves, but unto him who died for them, and rose again." 2 Corinthians 5:14-15

Notice the use of the word "all" used many times.


"For the grace of God our Saviour hath appeared to all men;" - Titus 2:11"


So here we go. These are examples of where the scriptures have to be rightly divided.


The scriptures say in second Timothy 2:15, "rightly dividing the word of truth".


So if we don't rightly divide, we contradict other scriptures like the ones I provided earlier and the ones the opposing side is giving.


In second Corinthians 5 it starts with "For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens"


So is the "we" ...."we all'' as the "all" that is "we"?


Let's read on.

Verse after verse , is "we" up to verse 10 where it says


"For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ".


So now it reads, "we all". "WE....ALL"...."WE....ALL".


So the "all" is referring to those who'd have a house with God, righteousness of God in Christ.


Thus getting down to verse 15


" And that he died for all,"


We line upon line as the scripture say, learn that "we all" is "us; we thus judge, that if one died for all", the "all" is the "all of us".


But when you isolate that verse 15 like the opposing side did, "all" wasn't rightly divided from what the opposing side thought as "all people" from "we all" which is the "we" Paul is talking about as pointed out above, between that group and to the church at corinth of.


Not every single person in the world.


So what are we going to do?


Just stick with the context or assume it to add to it, which is what the opposing side is presuming on it which is taking the position the opposing side has and asserting it on to the text.


"How would all men have the chance to accept God if God did not die for all?"


All people don't have the chance because the scriptures say no not one.


Nobody, NOBODY SEEKS AFTER GOD. That's the first thing you have to get straight.


No person takes a chance to accept anything from God for the scripture teaches a person's heart is farrrrr from him.


So how is a person going to have the sins paid for from the sacrifice of God laying down his life?


Scripture says all that the Father gave, not all people but ALL THAT THE FATHER GAVE .....Jesus will lose none of them.

Except the one.....he shall lose none of them.



"And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world." - 1 John 2:2"


Right, not just for those people that are in the context of "ours" but "those", not all people but "those"......check the language.


It said "those "....not all people. Who are "those"?


They are those..... scattered throughout the whole world not of this fold(ours) according to John 10 .


Jesus said he lays down his life for the sheep. He didn't say all people. All people are not his sheep but only the ones that hear his voice.


The passage teaches there are those not of his sheep. Jesus didn't say he lays down his life both that are and not his sheep.


Being that God knows the end from the beginning, why would God die for those that will never be saved, freed from sin and death and never washed of it?


Do you mean to say the FATHER doesn't know who will be saved so Jesus just died for every single person to cover all bases?


We got to learn from scripture that God predestinated working everything after his will.


It's we that don't know about tomorrow, don't know the end from the beginning and do things such as "covering all bases".


"John goes out of his way to say Jesus is not only the atonement for our sins but the whole world.




It would probably be a good idea to explain what your views on this subject are. After all, if Jesus didn't die for the whole world, for whom did He die?"


Just explained all this above......by the one and only John.... approximately so.


If your best strong reason and defense is "whole world ", it's not going to suffice. You actually have to find something that says all people or contradict Jesus where he said he lays down his life for the sheep by saying he laid it down for his sheep and not his sheep adding on to scripture.





When "the World" Doesn't Actually Mean "the World"


Con claimed I was being "slothful" by assuming that "world" means all people, but this is not my whole argument. I think the problem with con's case is that con cannot give us a clear definition of "world." For example, world will shift from being good people to bad people. When the Bible says not to be like the world, con sees this as the unrighteous. But when the Bible says Christ died for the world, cons sees this as the righteous.


"The scriptures says 'be in the world but not of the world.'"


I think that this won't make sense for con. I understand this verse as saying we have to be human but we can't let our humanity take us over.


"So if it was every single person on the planet, this scripture would be saying things that are in the world that are also not of the world to not be of them having the same spirit of faith."


Earth is not a planet. The Bible distinguishes between "the heavens and the earth."


"With this private interpretation of the word "world", the opposing side like many others would just make shipwreck of the scriptures."


"Private interpretation"? Is yours a public interpretation? If so, how? The Church gives us the meaning of the Bible. The only one with private interpretation in this debate is you.


"Nobody has anymore sin, nobody."


"If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us." (1 John 1:10)


"Even though its "worldly" lusts, does it mean every single person?"


I thought you said nobody has sin. It can't be talking about anyone in this case then.


By Whose Authority


"This is the opposing side's issue. Relying on common interpretation instead of rightly dividing.

The scriptures have to be rightly divided."


What interpretation are you basing it on? Yourself? How do you know when you are "rightly divided"?


"The scriptures say in second Timothy 2:15, "rightly dividing the word of truth". So if we don't rightly divide, we contradict other scriptures like the ones I provided earlier and the ones the opposing side is giving."


2 Timothy 2:15 (or the entire chapter) never even mentions Scripture. It seems more about logic, just read the next verses.


When the Word "All" Doesn't Actually Mean "All"


"We line upon line as the scripture say, learn that "we all" is "us; we thus judge, that if one died for all", the "all" is the "all of us"."


"the charity of Christ presseth us: judging this, that if one died for all, then all were dead." 2 Corinthians 5:14


"All were dead" means all humanity was dead. Like 1 Corinthians 15:22 says "And as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all shall be made alive"


You added the word "us" into the verse. Even if "us" was in the verse, who is it referring to? Humanity? Only people reading it?


"But when you isolate that verse 15 like the opposing side did, "all" wasn't rightly divided from what the opposing side thought as "all people" from "we all" which is the "we" Paul is talking about as pointed out above, between that group and to the church at corinth of."


Not 1 Corinthians 15:22. It says just like death spread to all, life shall be spread to all. It doesn't make it sound exclusive.


I think a big problem is that "world" never means just the elect in scripture. World is often used to be the unrighteous. The word "secular" literally means "of the world." I understand world can have different meanings, but it never means a people chosen by God to be saved.


When "Nobody" Actually Does Means "Nobody"


"All people don't have the chance because the scriptures say no not one."


I don't understand how this logic follows.


"Nobody, NOBODY SEEKS AFTER GOD. That's the first thing you have to get straight."


Your interpretation of "nobody seeks after God" needs to be understood properly. This would mean that God literally forces people to be saved. If this is true, heaven would be worse for them. If they don't seek after God, they don't want salvation. They would be in pain in heaven. This is ridiculous.


You are getting this from Psalm 14 and 53, which is quoted in Romans 3:14. Let's look at the entire context:


"Unto the end, a psalm for David. The fool hath said in his heart: There is no God, They are corrupt, and are become abominable in their ways: there is none that doth good, no not one The Lord hath looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there be any that understand and seek God. They are all gone aside, they are become unprofitable together: there is none that doth good, no not one. Their throat is an open sepulchre: with their tongues they acted deceitfully; the poison of asps is under their lips. Their mouth is full of cursing and bitterness; their feet are swift to shed blood. Destruction and unhappiness in their ways: and the way of peace they have not known: there is no fear of God before their eyes. Shall not all they know that work iniquity, who devour my people as they eat bread? They have not called upon the Lord: there have they trembled for fear, where there was no fear. For the Lord is in the just generation: you have confounded the counsel of the poor man, but the Lord is his hope. Who shall give out of Zion the salvation of Israel? when the Lord shall have turned away the captivity of his people, Jacob shall rejoice and Israel shall be glad."


It's talking about the wicked. The "children of men" likely means worldly men, like in Genesis 6:2, being compared to the children of God, i.e. holy people. If none seeks God, why does Jacob rejoice and why is Israel glad? It says the "Lord is in the just generation." It's comparing the godly to the ungodly. It makes perfect sense for Paul to quote, because of the new covenant. All have the chance to become godly in Christ.


"So how is a person going to have the sins paid for from the sacrifice of God laying down his life?"


I can't help but see you seem to be using logic, when you have complained about my using logic in our other debates.


The Classic Predestination Debate


"Scripture says all that the Father gave, not all people but ALL THAT THE FATHER GAVE .....Jesus will lose none of them. Except the one.....he shall lose none of them."


This verse in not talking about who Christ died for and didn't die for. It's talking about who accepts and doesn't. We can only accept because of God's grace. We don't deserve it.


"Right, not just for those people that are in the context of "ours" but "those", not all people but "those"......check the language. It said "those "....not all people. Who are "those"?"


The word "those" doesn't even exist in the original Greek. Even so, "those" means sins, not people. You can see all the different translations here. Some even add the word "sins" to show what "not only ours" is referring to:


"He is the payment for our sins, and not only for our sins, but also for the sins of the whole world."


You also ignored the "whole world" part. You said that it's in the context of only "ours." But John says "not only ours." It seems to imply the context is more than about just "us." You want to deny this.


"Being that God knows the end from the beginning, why would God die for those that will never be saved, freed from sin and death and never washed of it? Do you mean to say the FATHER doesn't know who will be saved so Jesus just died for every single person to cover all bases?"


There you go with your logic again.


"We got to learn from scripture that God predestinated working everything after his will."


Evil things happen. Does God actively will evil or only allow it for greater good?


If Jesus didn't die for all, then the damned could accuse God of not giving them a fair chance to repent. This makes God unjust.

Round 3

3 of 5
avatar
Mal
Con #5

"I think the problem with con's case is that con cannot give us a clear definition of "world." For example, world will shift from being good people to bad people. When the Bible says not to be like the world, con sees this as the unrighteous. But when the Bible says Christ died for the world, cons sees this as the righteous."


This is not the burden to be concerned with. Instead of stumbling with this, meet the burden of presenting scripture that says Christ died for all people or concede you cannot read that in scripture.


Gets no simpler than that. I believe the scripture say he confounded the wise with the simple things.



" "Private interpretation"? Is yours a public interpretation? If so, how?"


No.


"I thought you said nobody has sin. It can't be talking about anyone in this case then."


Unfortunately you were not getting my point.


But bottom line, we need scripture that says Jesus died for all people.



"What interpretation are you basing it on?

Yourself? "


There is no interpretation. You either receive what the scriptures says according to as it is written. Did Paul have an interpretation or did he receive revelation?


Was he working with a church interpretation?


"How do you know when you are "rightly divided"?"


You know when you're rightly dividing the scripture when you still have truth. Scripture says "rightly dividing the word of truth".


So you're learning something here . If you divide truth and it comes out in lies, it wasn't divided rightly.


I.E. , your position.


"It seems more about logic, just read the next verses."


Drop the word "seems" and replace it with "read". We have to read what you say the text says ..... actually in the text or you are reproved and found to be a liar.


" "All were dead" means all humanity was dead. Like 1 Corinthians 15:22 says "And as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all shall be made alive" "


Where it says "all shall be made alive", does that mean all people of the planet will be made alive from being spiritually dead?




"You added the word "us" into the verse. Even if "us" was in the verse, who is it referring to? Humanity? Only people reading it?"


Well don't waffle or waver. Did I actually add the word "us " or is it " Even if "us" was in the verse"?


Let's be definite about it.


I don't know what was unclear about my explanation so you asking "who is it referring to", I outlined this all out in the explanation.


What did you not get about it?


But in regards to saying I added, I'll say this.


Don't say I added it , then say "even if". There is no need to go into "even if" , being that you say I added it. We'd be arguing a non point and a verse that doesn't actually exist as I say.


If that's really the case.


But I want to give you a chance of repentance.


So do you want to take that back and say I didn't add or are you going to stand firm on your statement of me adding?


"Not 1 Corinthians 15:22. It says just like death spread to all, life shall be spread to all. It doesn't make it sound exclusive."


Are we talking about 2 Corinthians 5 or 1 Corinthians 15? Which one you gone keep running to and fro?


"I think a big problem is that "world" never means just the elect in scripture. World is often used to be the unrighteous. The word "secular" literally means "of the world." I understand world can have different meanings, but it never means a people chosen by God to be saved."


My friend , save yourself the trouble, find the exact scripture that says Jesus Christ died for all people.

This way we don't have to go back and forth on what a particular word means.


"I don't understand how this logic follows."


My friend, you have to stop using logic to approach the scriptures with. You're not going to get what are supposed to be spiritual writings with natural understanding.

Stop using logic. I'm not using logic to prove a point. I'm using and quoting scripture that has already made the point.


This is something you've been struggling with since we've been discussing biblical topics. Whoever, wherever, however you been taught was in error.


"Your interpretation of "nobody seeks after God" needs to be understood properly. This would mean that God literally forces people to be saved. If this is true, heaven would be worse for them. If they don't seek after God, they don't want salvation. They would be in pain in heaven. This is ridiculous."


I tell you what. Give me scripture that says about those that seek after God. I didn't give you any interpretation. I gave you what the scripture SAID.


All I do is give you what's written. I don't have to come up with an interpretation.


If you were to ask is there one that seeketh after God according to scripture, I say NO NOT ONE. Notice how I just give it written just like that. You can't use the excuse of "oh that's your interpretation".


An interpretation is not quoting verbatim what something says. An interpretation is somebody like you adding or reading into text saying more than what its saying.


Everything I say the text says, says verbatim. I think I've said this before. How do we know or verify we don't have private interpretations ? How do we know somebody is not adding to scripture?


When we read it, quote it as written. Do you not understand this by now?


You have to leave it as written.


Now one may ask how do you explain things without adding?


Jesus explained things to the disciples, right.


The bible gives the explanations. You just have to know where to find them to explain like I did with John and Corinthians.


Jesus explained things so you leave it to Jesus who according to the bible is the word of God, you leave it to the word, leave it to Jesus, the scriptures to explain.


In this manner you're still not adding with your subjective interpretation, see.


I hope you taking notes. To explain this the way I do, I suspect it must not be known or noted anywhere.


Biblical debates, at least the ones I setup are not debates on arguing based on logic, rationality, nature or science.


This is how atheists come to their errors. Looking at logic. Then you fall into the same ditch trying to use logic back.


Where the scripture says "Now the natural man doesn't receive the things of God's Spirit".


Logic is a natural aspect. Now maybe you don't believe that the scriptures teach it is an inspired book and books by a spirit. It's not a natural book according to that.


So these discussions are not the same as secular ones.


I got scripture that says none seek after God. So it's either true the bible teaches that as is or not .


"All have the chance to become godly in Christ."


Ok just get the scripture that says there are those that take the chance to seek after God. I got scripture that says not one. You find scripture for all people.


You gotta get scripture where we can read that or it's just your opinion.


"I can't help but see you seem to be using logic, when you have complained about my using logic in our other debates."


Your opinion. I mean I explain things with bible. If you can't see that, you're blind.


"This verse in not talking about who Christ died for and didn't die for. It's talking about who accepts and doesn't. We can only accept because of God's grace. We don't deserve it."


You'll know what a verse is saying because it is written. Hopefully you are an honest person and acknowledge all verses of scripture I give say what they say on their own. I never say a verse says what it doesn't say here.


Don't chop up my explanations and strawman them.


"The word "those" doesn't even exist in the original Greek. Even so, "those" means sins, not people. You can see all the different translations here. Some even add the word "sins" to show what "not only ours" is referring to:




"He is the payment for our sins, and not only for our sins, but also for the sins of the whole world."




You also ignored the "whole world" part. You said that it's in the context of only "ours." But John says "not only ours." It seems to imply the context is more than about just "us." You want to deny this."


I think I've made my points in my explanations. We're coming to the point of going in circles.


You either get scripture that says "all people" or yield. None of the scriptures you gave said "all people". You inserted "all people" into the verses .


"There you go with your logic again."


You know when you don't answer questions, you are refuted. Not only do you forfeit the debate, but your mouth has been stopped as the scripture says.


"Evil things happen. Does God actively will evil or only allow it for greater good?"


I can't say either way . I don't have any scripture to read either one of these. Note the difference with me.


I .....read...... anything...... on Jesus......what .....is...... written.


Scripture says "on him as the scripture have said".


As the scripture have said. As the scripture...... have..... said. Let it resonate....let that register.


So where it says ....he WORKETH all things after the counsel of his own will, we leave that as read in writing.


When you don't do that, you do what you been doing with text, rationalizing it.


Asking me things outside of scripture by making logical connections.


So when you ask " Does God actively will evil or only allow it for greater good?"


I'm not going to speak not as the oracles of God. I can't read either of those two in scripture but him working all things so , what do we do?


We just leave it as it is written. We don't add or take away.


When you just accept scripture as is, you don't rationalize it with logic.


You don't use logic to come up with your answer. You use bible for answers in a biblical debate.


You call it complaining means you're not adhering to what I'm saying. You just a rock, stoney rock where seed is not taken to soil .




"If Jesus didn't die for all, then the damned could accuse God of not giving them a fair chance to repent. This makes God unjust."


Do we have scripture to back this up?



Con goes back and forth when "all" means all and doesn't. Jesus died for all somehow needs to be qualified. "World" somehow means only those chosen by God. The Bible never uses "world" to mean that. World may sometimes refer to the known world or world in that area, but it never refers to the elect. World is either used in a neutral sense or a negative sense, since the world is fallen now and its default status is bad. "Not one seeks after God" somehow must mean literally not one single person on earth wants to be saved, yet for some reason God makes people go to heaven against their will when they'd rather go to hell. God worketh all things means God does everything, including evil. Con switches back and forth on what words like all should mean.


I'd like to make an argument that Jesus dying for everyone is the simplest answer. We know He died for the world, but we need to define the world. World is never used in the Bible to describe only those who accept God. World sometimes is used for the known world at the time or in the general area, but we know Jesus didn't die for a specific group of people. He is not limited to space and time. His atonement cannot be limited. Jesus said to baptize all nations. Why preach to all if they are unable to accept Him?


"There is no interpretation. You either receive what the scriptures says according to as it is written. Did Paul have an interpretation or did he receive revelation? Was he working with a church interpretation?"


Many people claim they all say just what Scripture says, yet they all come up with different beliefs. Paul received directly from God. You do not. He didn't need a church interpretation because he was the Church. Does the Bible ever say it's easy to understand?


"You know when you're rightly dividing the scripture when you still have truth. Scripture says "rightly dividing the word of truth". So you're learning something here . If you divide truth and it comes out in lies, it wasn't divided rightly."


This is just begging the question. You just say you have the truth because of the truth. How do you know when the truth comes out?


"Drop the word "seems" and replace it with "read". We have to read what you say the text says ..... actually in the text or you are reproved and found to be a liar."


I use the word "seems" because I am not God. With just people, we can never know for sure what the text means.


"Where it says "all shall be made alive", does that mean all people of the planet will be made alive from being spiritually dead?"


All shall be made alive, but not all will be made alive. You seem to be using logic to say it can't be everyone on the "planet." Earth is not a planet anyway.


You dismiss the idea that "all" will be saved because it seems logically impossible. "It can't be everyone, right?"


Also, how would that make me a liar? Using the word "seems" makes it impossible to call me a liar. I don't claim to be God and know exactly what everything means.


"Well don't waffle or waver. Did I actually add the word "us " or is it " Even if "us" was in the verse"?"


I'm trying to steelman. I want my position to be as strong as possible. You claim the word "us" is implied. 1 John 2:2 says He is not just the atonement for us but the whole world.


"I don't know what was unclear about my explanation so you asking "who is it referring to", I outlined this all out in the explanation."


"Us" is not a very specific word. Pronouns are used when the subject has already been stated. It's all about context. If you add "us" to a random verse, no one will even know who "us" is even referring to.


"Are we talking about 2 Corinthians 5 or 1 Corinthians 15? Which one you gone keep running to and fro?"


I'm confused what you're asking. Both verses are consistent with each other.


"My friend, you have to stop using logic to approach the scriptures with. You're not going to get what are supposed to be spiritual writings with natural understanding. Stop using logic. I'm not using logic to prove a point. I'm using and quoting scripture that has already made the point. This is something you've been struggling with since we've been discussing biblical topics. Whoever, wherever, however you been taught was in error."


Logic comes from God. This is nonsense. Jesus was called the Logos, which means "reason, logic, order, or understanding."


I definitely agree there is human logic and divine logic. Everything needs some explanation, but it will never be a full explanation since we're only human.


"I got scripture that says none seek after God. So it's either true the bible teaches that as is or not ."


No one seeks after God? Why are you arguing for God then if you don't seek after Him? Does God force heaven upon those who don't even want it? That's even worse than hell then, because at least they want to go to hell.


You're the same person who says "all" doesn't mean all but somehow "none" has to mean none.


"You either get scripture that says "all people" or yield. None of the scriptures you gave said "all people". You inserted "all people" into the verses ."


Look, I'm not the one who's been adding "us" and "those" into verses.


I have verses that say "all" and the word "people" is implied.


"This is how atheists come to their errors. Looking at logic. Then you fall into the same ditch trying to use logic back."


Not according to the Bible. According to the Bible, the fool says in his heart there is no God. Do fools use logic? The Bible says those who don't use logic become atheists. Atheists refuse to believe because of their feelings and use pseudo-logic to make their beliefs look rational.


Aristotle used pure reason and logic to know there was an unmoved mover. He didn't even have a Bible. Logic leads to God. God is the author of logic. We know God exists because of logic.


"You call it complaining means you're not adhering to what I'm saying. You just a rock, stoney rock where seed is not taken to soil ."


Rock is not supposed to be an insult, if you adhere to the Bible. Peter was named rock. The gates of hell shall not prevail against it. You reject the rock.

Round 4

4 of 5
avatar
Mal
Con #7

"Con goes back and forth when "all" means all and doesn't. Jesus died for all somehow needs to be qualified. "World" somehow means only those chosen by God. The Bible never uses "world" to mean that. World may sometimes refer to the known world or world in that area, but it never refers to the elect. World is either used in a neutral sense or a negative sense, since the world is fallen now and its default status is bad. "Not one seeks after God" somehow must mean literally not one single person on earth wants to be saved, yet for some reason God makes people go to heaven against their will when they'd rather go to hell. God worketh all things means God does everything, including evil. Con switches back and forth on what words like all should mean.




I'd like to make an argument that Jesus dying for everyone is the simplest answer. We know He died for the world, but we need to define the world. World is never used in the Bible to describe only those who accept God. World sometimes is used for the known world at the time or in the general area, but we know Jesus didn't die for a specific group of people. He is not limited to space and time. His atonement cannot be limited. Jesus said to baptize all nations. "


Scripture say basically, strain at a gnat swallowing a camel.


The opposing side is doing all this reaching because there is no scripture, absolutely none ...that says God died for all people.



"Why preach to all if they are unable to accept Him?"


The preacher doesn't know who will or who won't. Jesus taught about the seed falling on different ground when you preach the message. Scripture say man looks at the outer appearance. He can't see the heart whether it is hardened or not. Just like disciples didn't know Simon's heart. They preached the word, he got baptized. They didn't know his heart was still not right unless it was revealed to them by Jesus the Father. But then, they prayed after this revelation however.

So the heart , who can know it?


The preacher is just taught to be instant, in season , out of season. So what is revealed to him is what is his and the secrets things belong to God so nevermind....who will and who won't accept. Not your business unless God reveal his secrets to his servants.


You're learning something here...take note...if you have other questions...even after the debates are over .... let me know ....I can respond with a YouTube video.


"Many people claim they all say just what Scripture says, yet they all come up with different beliefs."


All you have to do is search the scriptures whether what they're saying is so in scripture.


How? It has to be written. I think you've lost the distinction between what is written and what people interpret. You've somehow blurred the two.



Here's a straightforward example.


I say there is none that seek after him.


Now quite simply, is that written or not what I said?


That's it. It's either written or not.


Scripture say basically God confounded the wise with the SIMPLE things.


Something simple as something just being written is perplexing to grasp for folks.


"Paul received directly from God. You do not. He didn't need a church interpretation because he was the Church."


I would ask but there ain't no bible that says a single apostle was the church .


See, this is what I'm talking about. I know what you say versus what the book actually says and teaches.


There ain't no scripture that said Paul was the church. So you know what, that's something you made up.


This is how falsehood is made up . People says things they really don't have any bible for.


Paul received from Christ and said we having the same spirit of faith ACCORDING TO AS IT IS WRITTEN.


So you take what Paul said and all the apostles as written. Not suggested,not as implied or specially interpreted in the way you have been taught. Those are your own rules .


"Does the Bible ever say it's easy to understand?"


No. Not to my knowledge. However it does say my yoke is easy


"This is just begging the question. You just say you have the truth because of the truth. How do you know when the truth comes out?"


Well you have to know what truth is according to the scripture. See, if you don't even know what truth is, you're definitely going to be lost.


Scriptures say let God be true. Scriptures teaches God is a God of truth. So when Jesus says what? Says he is the truth, we understand what that means.


The words that he spoke are from father God. So if you add or take away from his pure words, you're not letting him be true and you be found a liar.


So if you divide the truth adding, taking away, twisting the words as the disciple said basically they twist my words all the day long, contradicting the words, conflicting scripture, saying thus saith the Lord and the Lord has not said, you're not in the truth.


Scripture say ye shall know the truth. You know the truth, you know God.


" "I use the word "seems" because I am not God. With just people, we can never know for sure what the text means." "


Scripture say ye shall know the truth. The spirit will guide you into all truth. So this really speaks to where people's faith really is. Is it more in themselves?


That's pretty much the way of christianity.


"All shall be made alive, but not all will be made alive. You seem to be using logic to say it can't be everyone on the "planet." Earth is not a planet anyway."


So this is the long way around to saying "no" point blank period . "All" doesn't mean all people. Number one , the scripture didn't say "all people". Besides, once you learn what the scriptures teach, all people are not saved because all people are not made alive .


So just because you see the term "all", don't jump behind the word adding "people".

I just went over this about adding to scripture which is what you have consistently done.




"You dismiss the idea that "all" will be saved because it seems logically impossible. "It can't be everyone, right?""


This is disingenuous and bearing false witness. I don't dismiss anything. The bible dismisses it.


Then I teach you with book chapter and verse that explains itself the dismissal.



"Also, how would that make me a liar? Using the word "seems" makes it impossible to call me a liar. I don't claim to be God and know exactly what everything means."


Then you should have not taken this debate. If you can't speak on what you know from scripture, you shouldn't be speaking on this .


Scripture say speak on what YOU KNOW. Not what seems.

Scripture say there is a way that SEEMS right unto man.


You going with what's right as it seems instead of what you know.


How do you know anything about what the bible says?


You would have had to search it to see if what is said is so. This was your burden to search the scriptures where we can read Christ died for all people.


We don't have to worry about what something means when you just find something written at face value.


You're going to be forever learning not coming to the knowledge of the truth.


Have you not learned by now to forget about trying to debate an interpretation of what you think a verse means or seems but to rather find a verse that just reads what it reads?


Why are you resistant to approach the burdens by finding things written as is?


I know you said something about other people claiming that they have something by what they read. But you obviously can read what they say in the book or not so there's no issue there.


"I'm trying to steelman. I want my position to be as strong as possible. You claim the word "us" is implied. 1 John 2:2 says He is not just the atonement for us but the whole world."


I'm going to ask you again. Did I say the word "us" is in the verse?


Be honest and say no. Don't "steel" man, don't bear false witness and let your yes be yes and no be no.



" "Us" is not a very specific word. Pronouns are used when the subject has already been stated. It's all about context. If you add "us" to a random verse, no one will even know who "us" is even referring to."


Scripture say if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost .


"I'm confused what you're asking. Both verses are consistent with each other."


Just deal with one verse or passage at a time and you won't be confused this way I can address it .


"Logic comes from God. This is nonsense. Jesus was called the Logos, which means "reason, logic, order, or understanding.




I definitely agree there is human logic and divine logic. Everything needs some explanation, but it will never be a full explanation since we're only human."


Give me scripture that says "divine logic" or admit you just made that up.


Scripture says great is the mystery of Godliness. Not great as the logic of godliness.


This is my point exactly. See how you say things and we can't even read in scripture?


Give me scripture that says "divine logic".


"No one seeks after God? Why are you arguing for God then if you don't seek after Him? Does God force heaven upon those who don't even want it? That's even worse than hell then, because at least they want to go to hell.




You're the same person who says "all" doesn't mean all but somehow "none" has to mean none."



If I give you bible that says none seek after him, are you going to say amen and retract all these needless questions or fight the scripture?


"Look, I'm not the one who's been adding "us" and "those" into verses.




I have verses that say "all" and the word "people" is implied."


The verses say "all" what? Hypocrite.


"Not according to the Bible. According to the Bible, the fool says in his heart there is no God. Do fools use logic? The Bible says those who don't use logic become atheists. Atheists refuse to believe because of their feelings and use pseudo-logic to make their beliefs look rational.




Aristotle used pure reason and logic to know there was an unmoved mover. He didn't even have a Bible. Logic leads to God. God is the author of logic. We know God exists because of logic."


You both are blind falling in the ditch. Both of you are fools. You saying a lot of things and have not shown where the scripture says it .


A fool speaks on the things in error concerning the things of the Lord the scripture teaches.



"Rock is not supposed to be an insult, if you adhere to the Bible. Peter was named rock. The gates of hell shall not prevail against it. You reject the rock."


My case and point. You have ears cannot hear eyes cannot see .


Debate is pretty much over.



Salvation


"The preacher doesn't know who will or who won't. Jesus taught about the seed falling on different ground when you preach the message. Scripture say man looks at the outer appearance. He can't see the heart whether it is hardened or not. Just like disciples didn't know Simon's heart. They preached the word, he got baptized. They didn't know his heart was still not right unless it was revealed to them by Jesus the Father. But then, they prayed after this revelation however."


In your version, God is basically telling people to try to convent those that are actually supposed to be damned. God is telling people to waste time, which sounds contrary to message of Christ coming soon (though the meaning of "soon" is hard to tell):

Behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to render to every man according to his works. (Revelation 22:12)

Simon Magus in Acts 8:13 did believe and was baptized, which is the formula for being saved according to Mark 16:16. It wasn't about the Apostles not knowing his heart was really hardened the whole time. He was jealous and was not right with God after this (verse 21) and he is told to repent (verse 22), meaning his heart can be unhardened.


"The preacher is just taught to be instant, in season , out of season. So what is revealed to him is what is his and the secrets things belong to God so nevermind....who will and who won't accept. Not your business unless God reveal his secrets to his servants."


So much for "none seeks after God." How is preaching possible since no one apparently wants God?


Bible or the Church?


"How? It has to be written. I think you've lost the distinction between what is written and what people interpret. You've somehow blurred the two."


Where in the Bible does it say everything has to be written? It doesn't. Find a verse that says this. You won't be able to.


"I would ask but there ain't no bible that says a single apostle was the church ."


Let's check out these verses:

I say to thee: That thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven. (Matthew 16:18)

The Church is built on Peter. Do you have the power to "bind" and "loose"? I don't think so.

And they were persevering in the doctrine of the apostles, and in the communication of the breaking of bread, and in prayers. (Acts 2:42)

This verse doesn't say anything about Scripture. It was before the New Testament was written. Back then, you just had to listen to the Apostles.

Built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone (Ephesians 2:20)

This verses emphasizes the importance of the Apostles in the role of the Church. It shows that their importance does not diminish the role of Christ in any way.

And the wall of the city had twelve foundations, and in them, the twelve names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb. (21:14)

Just like the old kingdom with the 12 tribes, the new Kingdom has 12 apostles as its foundation. The new Kingdom is the Church.

Therefore I tell you, the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a people that produces the fruits of the kingdom. (Matthew 21:43)

This role has been given to the Church. The kingdom doesn't just become spiritual with no visible leadership.


"Paul received from Christ and said we having the same spirit of faith ACCORDING TO AS IT IS WRITTEN."


You're adding to scripture. "As it is written" does not mean ignore everything else not written. That's a big leap if you ask me.


Truth and Understanding


Me: "Does the Bible ever say it's easy to understand?"


Con: No. Not to my knowledge. However it does say my yoke is easy


If it never says it's easy to understand, your understanding may very well be of the devil. For all you know, you only think you are right with God and your interpretation is true.


"Scripture say ye shall know the truth. The spirit will guide you into all truth. So this really speaks to where people's faith really is. Is it more in themselves?"


Unfortunately, it's not that easy. Many people claim to all have the truth, but they all contradict each other. How does the Spirit guide?


"No" Means No, but "All" Doesn't Mean All


"So this is the long way around to saying "no" point blank period . "All" doesn't mean all people. Number one , the scripture didn't say "all people". Besides, once you learn what the scriptures teach, all people are not saved because all people are not made alive ."


Why does "no" somehow mean no, but "all" doesn't mean all? You pick and choose. Maybe "all" doesn't always mean all, but it never means a specific people chosen by God. I would say it means all have the chance to live. Plus the verse says, "As in Adam all die." It means that just like Adam makes men die, Christ gives everyone the chance to live. 2 Corinthians 5:14 says "that if one died for all, then all were dead." "All were dead" means literally all were dead. Paul says because Christ died for all, this means that all must have been dead. Somehow the meaning of "all" can drastically change mid-sentence in your world.


So if "all" doesn't mean all people, explain what it does mean.


"So just because you see the term "all", don't jump behind the word adding "people".

I just went over this about adding to scripture which is what you have consistently done."


I'm confused why adding "people" makes a difference. The people is implied, first of all. Second, adding "people" makes it more specific and less inclusive. Simply saying "all" could imply that angels or the beasts were saved. Third, look at Romans 5:18: "Therefore, as by the offence of one, unto all men to condemnation; so also by the justice of one, unto all men to justification of life." We see the word men instead of people, but it obviously means people. The Greek word is anthrópos, which is basically mankind.


"This is disingenuous and bearing false witness. I don't dismiss anything. The bible dismisses it."


It sounds like you're saying the Bible dismisses itself. Stop putting the Bible against the Bible. Look at all of Scripture and don't just pick a few favorite verses and then interpret everything in a way that fits with your understanding of your favorite verse.


"I'm going to ask you again. Did I say the word "us" is in the verse?"


You said the "all" just means all of us, not all the world. You accuse me of adding to the Bible, but I don't add words into verses. You interpretation is already debunked when John says "not only ours."


"Be honest and say no. Don't "steel" man, don't bear false witness and let your yes be yes and no be no."


The point of steelmanning is so it's impossible to call me a liar.


Logic or Mystery?


"Give me scripture that says "divine logic" or admit you just made that up. Scripture says great is the mystery of Godliness. Not great as the logic of godliness."


The Logos is the divine logic. Also, mystery doesn't mean take logic out of the equation.


"If I give you bible that says none seek after him, are you going to say amen and retract all these needless questions or fight the scripture?"


I give you verses that say "all" and you can somehow push them to the side and say "all" doesn't mean all. For some reason, you give verses that say "none" and I can't say "none" doesn't mean none. Also, you would agree that "all have gone aside" means literally all because "none" means literally none. And also "God worketh all things" means all things literally, including evil. You are not consistent at all.


"You both are blind falling in the ditch. Both of you are fools. You saying a lot of things and have not shown where the scripture says it ."


Aristotle shows the truth can come out even without the Bible.

Round 5

5 of 5
avatar
Mal
Con #9

Alright so let's wrap up this topic.


I'm just going to say according to scripture, if you are to understand what I'm saying, consider what I say and the Lord give you understanding.


Not logic. It's not logic that gives you understanding. This is of the natural man.


I believe the scripture teaches that the natural man cannot receive the things of God .


It doesn't work by logic trying to approach the bible like any other book .


The natural man understands things through logic.


If you are familiar or really know what the bible teaches, all this what I'm saying should be known.


But I understand people may not know. Scripture says I believe..... what thou know not teach thou me.


As far as the scriptures go, we don't have any verse that said Christ or God or Jesus or the Lord died for all people.


I understand people believe he did because of specific said reasons.


With that preconceived bias, when you read a verse that says "all", you automatically insert from your bias.


This is why I say repeatedly, when you go according to as it is written, you can't be accused of this bias being honest.


People that are not honest or lacking in wisdom, will say you have a bias by just reading exactly what you've said.


"How is preaching possible since no one apparently wants God?"


Let's get the book of Romans .


Let get chapter ten.


As the scripture say I believe, what thou know not.......teach thou me.


Let's go so we can learn something.


"14 How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?


15 And how shall they preach, except they be sent?"


So like Moses sent by God to teach the laws unto Israel, like Paul and the apostles sent to preach unto the people.


That's how preaching is possible. Scripture teaches ALL THINGS ARE POSSIBLE through Christ who was God manifest, in flesh and blood and flesh and bone and in the express image.


"Where in the Bible does it say everything has to be written? It doesn't. Find a verse that says this. You won't be able to."


I never said the scripture says "everything has to be written".


Scripture says they TWIST MY WORDS ALL THE DAY LONG.


I never said it says "everything has to be written". I never said it said that. I said or I say it says "according to as it is written".


Now you didn't accept my challenge on the bible making that statement.


You won't be able to refute that.


This is what people do. They easily twist up what you say. You either twist it up or lack understanding of what somebody says.


Scripture says of all thy getting get understanding.


Understand what somebody is telling you and when you go to according as it is written, according as it is written , according as it is written , according as it is written , according as it is written .......do we understand now?


If you go according to as I've written, you shouldn't be able to twist things up, add things , or take away things from what I've stated .


You can't do that with me. You can't do that with scripture.


This is like a deflection. Instead of asking where does the Bible say "according as it is written ", I'm asked to show something I never said. Not only that, the person answers the person's own question by saying " It doesn't".


So the question shouldn't be asked in the first place .


Ask the question right, don't strawman. Why hasn't my challenge been accepted on whether the bible says "according as it is written "?


Because there's no defense against it. I bet people don't know these things and when they see a challenge, they do a quick lookup just to see if they could challenge it .


Without actually knowing the subject well .



Scripture say " I am put here for the defense of the gospel".


"The Church is built on Peter. Do you have the power to "bind" and "loose"? I don't think so."


I'm trying to be consistent with answering all questions but it appears that these are rhetorical and not genuinely setup for me to answer. Nor do they really point us to showing us where it is written that Christ died for all people.


Also let me say this. Asking the question "Where in the Bible does it say everything has to be written?" is a scapegoat scape card to get out of finding written scripture that actually says what you are saying.


The attitude of "Oh, if everything don't have to be written, therefore, we can make up as we go along."


Just an excuse and the scripture say inexcusable o man.


For the scripture say whatsoever ever things that were WRITTEN before time, were WRITTEN for our learning.


So we learned from what is written, that what we speak is what we believe according to AS IT IS WRITTEN.


In order for the people in the book of Acts to find out what was so who received the word searched daily whether these things or those things were so.


They were searching the things of the word. You can't search things of the word without it written, duh.


Scripture says WRITE DOWN THESE WORDS.


So a lot of people have not been taught these things of the scripture and barely searching these things .


But if you're going to search these things from the word you're receiving, you have to search that written word.


You not going to find written was what not in the spoken word.


Scripture say When a prophet speaks in the name of the LORD and the message does not come to pass or come true, that is a message the LORD has not spoken.


It wouldn't be true according to the word of the Lord in all Scripture inspired by that same Lord.


Oh this is a so called debate turned bible lesson.

That's good.


As Bishop Tookes use to say " and good is the word of the Lord".


"How does the Spirit guide?"


Looks like we have a non rhetorical question.


How does the spirit guide?


The book of scriptures I believe in Corinthians .


In second Corinthians 6.


"16 And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.


17 Wherefore come out from among them,"


So Jesus said the spirit will guide you into all truth and Paul a servant of Christ receives the revelation of Christ .....written here that the spirit which God is....will walk and dwell.


Is the grace of God not sufficient that he will strive and will walk in you to guide you?


Is this not sufficient to be guided with?


You walk after the spirit as the scripture says because you are led by the spirit, led by God as the scripture says.


People teaching that you lead yourself, do like verse 17 said, come out from among them .



There's a song a like.


It goes....

Come on out from among them saith the Lord......come on out from among them saith the Lord.....if they speak.....not accordingly.....to this word....come on out from among them....saith the Lord.


"Why does "no" somehow mean no, but "all" doesn't mean all? "


All does mean all. The point was to find scripture that said "all PEOPLE".


The words ALL and ALL PEOPLE are different words. Of thy getting, get understanding of that.


"I'm confused why adding "people" makes a difference. The people is implied, first of all. "


I can ask the audience. When we're talking about what the bible actually reads, should we find what it reads or implies?


The scriptures doesn't say according to implications. It says according to as it is written so my topics are firm on that.


This is not sinking in . The word written is falling on blind eyes and deaf ears. Having eyes they cannot see and ears they cannot hear .


People are not firm on that and taught not to be. People are taught to go by implications and what something seeeeems to be which the bible speaks in the negative of .


Case closed.




"I believe the scripture teaches that the natural man cannot receive the things of God."

"God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and injustice of those men that detain the truth of God in injustice: Because that which is known of God is manifest in them. For God hath manifested it unto them. For the invisible things of him, from the creation of the world, are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made; his eternal power also, and divinity: so that they are inexcusable." - Romans 1:18-20

Nature is of God. Nature is natural. Natural men can receive God and will still be judged with no excuses.


"It doesn't work by logic trying to approach the bible like any other book ."


Not sure what con means. Logic is required to interpret anything. I use Jesus' Church as my interpretation and don't rely on man's interpretation like con does.


"With that preconceived bias, when you read a verse that says "all", you automatically insert from your bias."


Con does the same thing. Con inserts his own bias into "all" and picks and chooses when it actually means all.


"People that are not honest or lacking in wisdom, will say you have a bias by just reading exactly what you've said."


I'm pretty sure wisdom is basically just logic but on a deep level. Con uses human logic to interpret the Bible and simply calls it something else.


"I never said the scripture says 'everything has to be written.'"


Con used a very smart tactic. Con complains about using things outside the Bible, like my mind, logic, and the Church that Jesus gave us. Con heavily implied solo/nuda scriptura. This was done to make it look like I put words into his mouth. I'm just trying to have a nice little debate, but Mal can't stop screaming "AS IT IS WRITTEN" in my face. Con is putting words into God's mouth with "as it is written." Con assumes more than what those words actually say.


"Scripture says they TWIST MY WORDS ALL THE DAY LONG."


And what proof does con have that he is not among this "they"? All humans twist words. Don't rely on yourself.


"If you go according to as I've written, you shouldn't be able to twist things up, add things , or take away things from what I've stated ."


There's no way to prove you go as it is written. Anyone can reinterpret scripture in his own way.


"The attitude of 'Oh, if everything don't have to be written, therefore, we can make up as we go along.'"


This is why the Church is needed. If everything doesn't have to be written, how do we know how far is too far? I go to the apostolic traditions, the ones preached by the Apostles.


"In order for the people in the book of Acts to find out what was so who received the word searched daily whether these things or those things were so."


They only searched to see if those things were so. They needed to accept the apostolic teachings, which were not yet written.


"Scripture says WRITE DOWN THESE WORDS."

Actually, there are very few times the Bible does say to write down. Most prophets simply preached to the people. Jesus wrote nothing down and didn't tell anyone to write either. The idea of writing down things was made by man.


"Is the grace of God not sufficient that he will strive and will walk in you to guide you? Is this not sufficient to be guided with?"


Well, con believes that Christ's Church fell into error on many major doctrines, such as the Trinity, atonement, and the role of the Church and Scripture. Con denies the Holy Spirit guided the Church.


"The words ALL and ALL PEOPLE are different words."


I've already been over this. "People" is implied in those verses. Plus, adding people only makes it more specific and limited.

"For the charity of Christ presseth us: judging this, that if one died for all, then all were dead. And Christ died for all; that they also who live, may not now live to themselves, but unto him who died for them, and rose again." - 2 Corinthians 5:14-15

In this verse, the "all" is clearly people. All people were dead, but not angels. It says "one died for all" and "all were dead." People were dead, spiritually.

"For no where doth he take hold of the angels: but of the seed of Abraham he taketh hold. Wherefore it behoved him in all things to be made like unto his brethren, that he might become a merciful and faithful priest before God, that he might be a propitiation for the sins of the people." - Hebrew 2:16-17

This verse explicitly says Christ took not the nature of angels but of men and that He made an atonement for men.


This is why it makes no sense for con to claim that "all" can refer to a limited amount of people while "all people" would have to mean all people. All people would only show Christ didn't die for angels and animals, but Scripture already clearly shows Christ only died for humans, so it was unnecessary to add "people."


Plus, in other verses "men" is used, which basically means people:

"Therefore, as by the offence of one, unto all men to condemnation; so also by the justice of one, unto all men to justification of life." - Romans 5:18
"For the grace of God our Saviour hath appeared to all men;" - Titus 2:11

God doesn't limit His grace to a select number of people. He invites all to accept Him.

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Kohai Administrator
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#2
--> @Mal, @Kohai, @SomeDebatePerson

>Reported Vote: Kohai // Mod action: Removed
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>Voted for: tie
>Reason for Decision: other
>Reason for Mod Action:
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Kohai Administrator
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#1

---Kohai's former vote---
Voted for: tie
rwar