Curious here.
What is your interest in the topic?
Why would you be interested in this?
Please quote exactly. Do not rephrase or reinterpret. Answer all questions directly. Failure to comply with all this is an automatic forfeit.
Disclaimer : Regardless of the setup for voting win or lose, The aim of this interaction, Is for those that view it, Learn and or take away anything that will amount to any constructive value ultimately. So that counts as anything that'll cause one to reconsider an idea, Understand a subject better, Help build a greater wealth of knowledge getting closer to truth. When either of us has accomplished that with any individual here, That's who the victor of the debate becomes.
Curious here.
What is your interest in the topic?
Why would you be interested in this?
I'm interested because I want to see how you justify that statement. It is a strong claim needing strong reasoning. I hope to understand what you meant by "Marriages should negate 'my body, my choice'" by the end of this debate.
I will be doing this topic different due to my preferences as described in the short description.
Let me summarize the change of rights.
1. Property and Assets
2. Debts and Liabilities
3. Medical and Legal Decisions (side note - this is what plays into the topic )
4. Spousal Support
Point number three is more exclusive to the topic. If the "opposing side" has questions , go ahead and ask.
Good day.
Curious what you meant by "I will be doing this topic different due to my preferences as described in the short description."
Fundemental issue here: You never defined "my body, my choice", the main point of the debate. Without defining it, it's difficult to evaluate your arguments.
Assuming you meant bodily autonomy,
The examples you've provided seems to show that marriage changes certain legal and financial rights. I won't dispute that...
However, where do they snow that bodily autonomy should change? Where is connection?
You've mentioned the change in financial and property rights, but how does the existence of these two imply the reduction of bodily autonomy?
On medical and legal decisions, I want to highlight something,
Spouses are often granted automatic rights to make emergency medical decisions for each other if one partner is incapacitated, as well as automatic next-of-kin rights regarding hospital visitation and inheritance laws.
One spouse being incapacitated is an important condition there. This debate seems to concern the bodily autonomy of a competent adult. So why is that relevant to the debate?
"However, where do they snow that bodily autonomy should change? Where is connection?"
I think you're answering your own questions.
You said:
"Spouses are often granted automatic rights to make emergency medical decisions for each other"
So one spouse is deciding for another's body which negates the other making his or her choice. It has been granted to the other spouse as opposed to the individual deciding for his or herself in non marital circumstances.
"You've mentioned the change in financial and property rights, but how does the existence of these two imply the reduction of bodily autonomy?"
Let's get the answers from what was already said:
"Marriage grants the legal right to request spousal support or alimony during or after a divorce, depending on the length of the marriage and the earning disparity between spouses."
In a non marital situation, the choice is totally up to the individual to support financially as opposed to having a right to it over individual choice.
"Debts accumulated while married—such as joint credit cards or a primary mortgage—are generally considered joint responsibilities and will be divided between both spouses upon divorce."
This works the same way .
"So why is that relevant to the debate?"
I'm not really clear on this question but you can bring anymore questions I can answer.
"I think you answered your own questions"
No. You failed to address them, actually.
Again, I'll repeat the same objection I had last round.
In the 3rd section in the first round, it says,
Marital Rights: Spouses are often granted automatic rights to make emergency medical decisions for each other if one partner is incapacitated, as well as automatic next-of-kin rights regarding hospital visitation and inheritance laws.
Please play close attention to the word "Incapacitated"
Incapacitated: An incapacitated person is someone who lacks the physical or mental ability to make informed decisions, manage their personal affairs, or care for themselves. This state can be temporary or permanent and is typically caused by severe illness, injury, disability, coma, or advanced age.
"If the partner is incapacitated" is clearly stated and is an essential condition.
Doesn't this debate concern the bodily autonomy of a competent adult? If yes, then your example does not show reduction of the bodily autonomy of a competent adult, instead it shows what happens when one spouse is incapacitated.
The financial rights and joint debts, says nothing about bodily autonomy of either individual in the marriage.
You never answered, so I ask again: Where is the connection?
"Doesn't this debate concern the bodily autonomy of a competent adult? If yes, then your example does not show reduction of the bodily autonomy of a competent adult, instead it shows what happens when one spouse is incapacitated."
Not necessarily. Even prior to being incapacitated, the wife submits to the husband making the decision to decides things prior to , during and after her incapacitation. Just by knowing about these variances in rights and getting married while non incapacitated, the decision is being made to NEGATE the my body my choice.
As individual and single , not married, it's your body your choice. It's your choice what happens in full capacity and incapacitated. No other person has any right over another by default was of age. But by being married, the default is waived and it automatically negates the my body my choice.
Very straightforward.
Do you get it now?
"You never answered, so I ask again: Where is the connection?"
Hopefully I answered your question in this exchange which I will regardcmore like engagement.
Let me make it clear for you legally(based on your own citations):
If one spouse(regardless of gender) starts to lack physical or mental ability to make informed decisions, manage their personal affairs, or care for themselves usually due to severe illness, injury, disability, coma, or advanced age,(I.e., incapacitated), the other spouse(regardless of gender) MAY be the default decision maker.
You can read your own source again, this is exactly what they mean. You could even enquire with them if you wish.
Let me give you an example: you see the future and finds out that you are going to be in a coma for a few months. You have a spouse near by, and you decide to sign a medical power of attorney saying the spouse may decide for you when you are unconscious(unable to make decisions). Have you suddenly lost your present bodily autonomy? You have only made an autonomous decision about what happens in a future situation where you can't decide.
Also, nowhere does it state "husband" or "wife".
They are all gender neutral. They use "spouse" or "partner". Not "husband" or "wife".
Thus, the claim you made, "the wife submits to the husband making the decision[...]" Is not supported by your own citations. At most, the claim should be gender neutral, "one spouse submits to the other spouse(regardless of gender)[...]"
But legally,
A husband may act for an incapacitated wife, a wife may act for an incapacitated husband, etc...
All of the citations also mention(regarding medical rights), "in emergencies" or "incapacitated".
Your claim is "Marriage between men and women negate my body, my choice"(or that competent adults somehow lose bodily autonomy when they're married)...
Which is not what your citations claim.
They instead say, "in emergencies, one partner may be the default decision maker for the incapacitated partner". It does not speak on bodily autonomy of a competent adult.
Question time
Q1. If a competent spouse refuses a medical procedure, can the other spouse legally consent on their behalf and force it anyway?(please answer legally, not asking for your moral opinion).
Q2. You have not answered the question. When I asked "where is the connection?", I referred to financial rights and joint debts, where is the connection between that and bodily autonomy?
Q3. Your sources only state that a spouse may make decisions when the other spouse in incapacitated. Where do they state that a competent spouse has already surrendered their bodily autonomy BEFORE becoming incapacitated..?
"If a competent spouse refuses a medical procedure, can the other spouse legally consent on their behalf and force it anyway?"
Depends on the circumstances in how one space may work around the other one to speak for or represent and make everything appear legally.
My position is that both spouses relinquish their individual rights and that both spouses submit to one another. I'm not talking about spouses that refuse each other. Individuals that get married but won't submit , there's no point in giving up individual autonomy. It becomes a joint autonomy . No more my body my choice . Right .
"You have not answered the question. When I asked "where is the connection?", I referred to financial rights and joint debts, where is the connection between that and bodily autonomy?"
There's joint autonomy when it comes money and everything else.
"Where do they state that a competent spouse has already surrendered their bodily autonomy BEFORE becoming incapacitated..?"
Basically with the terms "marital rights". This is what makes the difference between marital rights and individual rights. There's no longer individual autonomy.
Alright, hey, thanks for the conversation. Have a good one.
For my first question, you answered with "my position..."
I did not ask for your preference, I asked what happens legally.
"Depends on the circumstances" is not an answer unless you name the legal standard..
you introduced the concept of "joint bodily autonomy." However, that concept is never stated in the sources you cited. As I explained previously, your citations concern decision-making when one spouse is incapacitated
You shifted the argument from what the law says about marriage to what you think marriage should be.
Through out the whole discussion, Pro has failed to cite a legal standard which supports the position "Marriages between men and women negate bodily autonomy".
In fact, law actually protects the bodily autonomy of an individual even after a marriage. a competent adult retains the right to make decisions about their own body, including refusing or engaging in medical treatment, even after marriage. The decision belongs the competent adult, not the spouse. A competent person has a constitutionally protected liberty interest in refusing unwanted medical treatment also.