Is the Father's name Lord Jesus?

Debating #science #religion #truth #philosophy

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Mal
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Unrated · 4 rounds
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Please quote exactly. Do not rephrase or reinterpret. Answer all questions directly. Failure to comply with all this is an automatic forfeit.


Disclaimer : Regardless of the setup for voting win or lose, The aim of this interaction, Is for those that view it, Learn and or take away anything that will amount to any constructive value ultimately. So that counts as anything that'll cause one to reconsider an idea, Understand a subject better, Help build a greater wealth of knowledge getting closer to truth. When either of us has accomplished that with any individual here, That's who the victor of the debate becomes.


Round 1

1 of 4
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Mal
Pro #1

Greetings.


Let us get down to work in the bible, line upon line and here a little and hear the word of the Lord.


In the book of Isaiah 42 


"8 I am the Lord: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another"


Out of the mouth of two or three witnesses, let every word be established.


Exodus 15


"3 The Lord is a man of war: the Lord is his name."


We learn the Lord, those that desire to learn, learn in Isaiah 60 if I'm not in error,that the Lord is the Father, the God that created.


So the Lord God, the Lord Father is his name, the Father's name.


Jesus is God with us according to Matthew 1:23 and who was asked, who art thou Lord?



Acts 9 says "And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus "


We have the Lord Jesus , the Lord God with us , who is Jesus .


The Lord God Jesus , the Lord Father Jesus. Jesus said he " manifested thy name" , LORD JESUS.


As the scriptures are read, into the new testament, it's the constant reiterations of Lord Jesus.


Scripture say do all in the name of the Lord Jesus. Who art thou Lord? I am Jesus. Being baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.


Scripture teaches there is no other name given among men whereby men must be saved. God being a God of salvation, the Father's hand isn't so short that HE cannot save.


This is to be understood. The Father saves and he did it just as the prophecies were written. He came by what the scripture said manifested in flesh, flesh manifested him , manifested his name because Father God is God of salvation.


So Jesus to save his people is God that will come to save his people believed on in the world.



"justified in the Spirit, seen by angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."


1 Timothy 3 and 16.


It must be understood that the Father was in flesh reconciling the world unto himself, a GOD of salvation the Father being the Savior.


Made Lord and Savior, Lord made manifest, savior manifested his name. That's what Saul confirmed as well as Stephen.


That's all for now.


I have a number of more witnesses but here a little for now.





Jesus is called the Son of God. The Father's name is not Jesus. This already proves you are interpreting those verses wrong. You just put random verses together and create your own theology. You are just like everyone you criticize.


Please, answer the questions:


  1. Who is Jesus' father?
  2. Can someone be his own father?
  3. Who were the witnesses before the world was made?
  4. To whom did Jesus pray?
  5. What are the purposes of the terms, Father, Son, and Holy Spirit if they just refer to the same person?
  6. Why does Jesus refer to the Father as "you" and not "I/me"?
  7. Was there perfect love before the world was made?

Round 2

2 of 4
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Mal
Pro #3


"Who is Jesus' father?"


Joseph.


You can even say David. I'll be original.




"Can someone be his own father?"


Depends on who that someone is.



"Who were the witnesses before the world was made?"


I don't know about any witnesses. I do know according to scriptures, before the world was, before the mountains were, thou art GOD. That's singular.


It didn't say GODS or persons or witnesses.


Scripture say " I am the Lord that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself"


Now " by myself" is written all the while it's written in the beginning was the WORD and the WORD was with GOD. BUT the WORD was "by myself".


If we acknowledge Jesus was there and the Father was there before all this was, who's by himself?


It's either a lie or there's no acknowledgement which is a lie and God according to scripture is a God of truth.


"To whom did Jesus pray?"


The spirit.


It's the flesh and spirit. The flesh and spirit. The flesh and spirit. In every context, it's always the flesh and the spirit.



"What are the purposes of the terms, Father, Son, and Holy Spirit if they just refer to the same person?"


The scripture says nothing about " same person".

I don't know where people get this from.

It says nothing about that.

Scripture does say, let's get what it does say, it does say self same spirit.


Scripture says there's one LORD and we know about LORD JESUS, and scriptures say now the Lord is that spirit.

That flesh and blood is no more . We have heard of the patience of Job and have seen the end of the Lord .


Scriptures are not broken. FATHER , SON , HOLY GHOST, these three are one .....what......one God.


Scripture says unto us there is ONE GOD THE FATHER. THE FATHER IS HOLY and the FATHER WHO IS GOD IS SPIRIT was made flesh was the only begotten son.


The understanding can be opened up completely if it is accepted that there's just one God one spirit, nothing more.


It's because the doctrine of teaching that there's more than "by myself" and there are other whatever they are , that there's others, forgetting the "by myself". Every time you read the book of John , are you harmonizing "by myself" or remembering the Lord .. singular...the LORD your GOD?


Here's an excellent question, the great question.


Isaiah 47 and four.


"Our Redeemer—the Lord Almighty is his name—

is the Holy One of Israel."


Is this Father God?



"Why does Jesus refer to the Father as "you" and not "I/me"?


There's the spirit and then the flesh.

You have Jesus who's above all that came down in flesh all the while the spirit is spirit.


"Was there perfect love before the world was made?"


If love is referring to God , yes.


The opposite side just had questions . No scriptures to actually refute what I said. Why? The opposite side wanted to satisfy logical understanding instead of scriptural understanding.


Absolutely no scripture to debunk what I said. Made a claim about "random scripture". The opposite side didn't prove one scripture I used that is not irrelevant to the subject. So the scriptures aren't random, they are witnesses that prove the point.


Jesus is God with us according to Matthew. Jesus is Lord according to Acts. The opposite side didn't debunk this .


Jesus is Lord, God is Lord according to Isaiah. God took on and manifested himself in flesh according to 1 Timothy as well as Hebrews 2 and this God is the Father according to 2 Corinthians eight.


Now the opposite side will have to admit that this is all ONEEEEE GOD or more than one God alone but also has persons or whatever . As soon as the opposite side says one is not the other , for example God but not Father , the person has got to get scripture for that.


It's the one God the Father .....WHOM STEPHEN CALLED ON....... SAYING LORD...JESUS..... according to Acts 7.


The opposite side can continue to ask questions to learn at this point, be re-taught perhaps.

I know exactly why you said Joseph was Jesus' father: to avoid saying that Jesus is his own father. And I also think it's funny you said he was David's son to be specific when Jesus himself answered the pharisees saying, "If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" And explain what David meant by "The Lord said to my Lord..." Is the Lord talking to himself?


Perhaps I could clarify my question. Like, explain what Jesus mean when he says "My Father." Or what does he mean by saying "glorify me…with the glory which I had with you before the world”? And he cannot be glorifying himself because He said "if I glorify myself my glory means nothing."


Also, you take verses that say "by myself" while ignoring ones that say "the Word was with God" and "the glory that I had with you." The "by myself" means God alone, but it doesn't limit it to just the Father. Stop trying to make the Bible contradict itself.


And let me just check, you don't believe Joseph is the biological father, right? Just the legal father, correct? You don't deny the virgin birth?


Jesus speaks of a Father he has, and it is not Joseph. And tell me why you chose to say that? You did it to simply get around saying Jesus is his own father, which you know is illogical, but you know your theology demands it as a logical conclusion of saying Jesus is the Father. What other reason did you have if not this? Please explain yourself. You theology contradicts itself. If Jesus is not his own father, then he cannot be the Father, rendering your theology in error since it claims the opposite. If he is his own father, then your theology contradicts logic and is therefore logically impossible.


Now about Jesus' prayers. I don't understand how you explain it. So you think Jesus prayed to his own spirit? When Stephen prayed to Jesus, did he pray to Jesus' body or spirit? Your Nestorianism forces you to divide a person into body and spirit. We pray to God as a person, not part of him. Also, when you pray to Jesus, do you pray to his body or spirit? Do your worship his body or spirit? Or do you do it to his person?


Also, how do you make sense of Jesus using pronouns for him and the Father? Like calling himself I/me and the Father you. Pronouns refer to persons, not parts. Do you ever have your body talk to your spirit? Why would Jesus' body talk to his spirit? In conversations with oneself, pronouns never refer to different parts of a person. Even when someone talks to himself, he splits himself into multiple persons for grammatical purposes and so someone can answer back, almost pretending that another person is there. And Jesus doesn't sound like the kind of guy who would talk to himself. It is unprofessional and will only confuse readers into thinking there are multiple persons in one Christ.


And your flesh vs spirit theology becomes problematic. Since you divide Jesus, you can no longer say the Father's name is Jesus, which is the title of the debate. For example, in Matthew 1:25: "[Mary] brought forth her firstborn son: and [Joseph] called his name JESUS." A son is a person, not a body. You don't call your mother just the mother of your body. And Joseph named Jesus in his flesh, right? So I'll ask you some questions to see: Is Mary the mother of God or just Jesus' flesh, or neither since you don't even believe Mary gave Jesus flesh? Is God the Father the spirit while the Son of God is the flesh? Is Jesus as a man a separate person or being from Jesus as God?


And also, your understanding of God does not have perfect love in the beginning (even though you said it did). Your "God" was unable to love anyone before he created the world.


Maybe just explain your theology. (You're probably just gonna say your theology is the Bible.) Answer any questions I asked above.

Round 3

3 of 4
avatar
Mal
Pro #5

" "If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" And explain what David meant by "The Lord said to my Lord..." Is the Lord talking to himself?" "


Yes and no.


The Lord know ye he is God is one Lord wasn't talking to his spirit. Scripture says unto the son he said which was God manifest.


Remember, there's the manifest of God, and the spirit of God.


The holy Spirit and the EXPRESSED IMAGE of God.


This is what Stephen saw when he called on God, the one God, so it's deception to say one is not the other, it's the same God . Whether you wanna say the Word, The Father or holy Spirit, the name he called was Lord Jesus. The name Saul was told to call on .


The spirit speaking to the manifestation, the flesh, in this case in heaven would be flesh and bones. At the very least, the manifestation of the flesh.


That's all we can read so that's how we leave it.



" explain what Jesus mean when he says "My Father." Or what does he mean by saying "glorify me…with the glory which I had with you before the world”? And he cannot be glorifying himself because He said "if I glorify myself my glory means nothing." "


I could get deep with this with a layer of scriptures but for the sake of time and plainness, I'll give this scripture that gives the explanation.


You go to John 1 where it says in the beginning was the Word which in the beginning was God, before anything was made that was made , it was God which was spirit.


The spirit became what ...... flesh. The spirit became..... manifest. The spirit conceived the flesh, the son, became the offspring of David first being root. The spirit was manifest to that expressed image.

This coincides making man , God making everything, making man in his image . God didn't have an image before the beginning as such because he's invisible.


But this was the image to come as the scripture says your God shall come I believe.


The spirit spoke and said let their be light. The spirit, the word, was just spirit. So the word being in flesh had to go back up to where he was before. The glory that was emptied out had to return back to the glory that was before the beginning which was spirit. All there was , was one spirit.


From the spirit to flesh back to spirit and also that body given the same glory of immortality which no man has seen nor can see or approach unto, God's glory, whom has not shared with another, who only have immortality dwelling in the light.


This also coincides or lines up with 1 John 1 but I went longer in length then anticipated so I wish to cut it here.


"Also, you take verses that say "by myself" while ignoring ones that say "the Word was with God" and "the glory that I had with you." The "by myself" means God alone, but it doesn't limit it to just the Father. Stop trying to make the Bible contradict itself."


This is something you still haven't got . When you just say the Father, you're also talking about the holy Spirit, you're talking about the word. You still don't get that you don't get one without the other. It's one God. That same God is all the above even if you only mention one of three that bear record. You're the one that thinks just because you only mention one word, it leaves out everything else.


By this logic or point you make, because I don't say God the Father who is love and just say God , is that saying he is not love? I rebuke that.


Every time you read about a subject, you keep in memory alllll the other lines that is in reference to the subject.

It's like you take a verse and just nail it down to an absolute value just by the one verse.


Get into the practice of line upon line.


This is what this trinity doctrine does. It teaches distinction so greatly, you tend to think of the godhead as one without the other just because you only mentioned one title or word.


Totally losing the teaching of 1 John 5 and 7 .


"And let me just check, you don't believe Joseph is the biological father, right? Just the legal father, correct? You don't deny the virgin birth?"


Yes it has to be a virgin birth according to the prophecy. It has to be a virgin birth in order for Jesus to be this holy thing, God.



"Jesus speaks of a Father he has, and it is not Joseph. And tell me why you chose to say that? What other reason did you have if not this? "


I was just being original like I conveyed . Joseph was his father, David was his father. Scripture says out of the fruit of his loins, right. I believe it says that. THE FATHER JESUS is the FATHER of his OWN BODY.


HE LAID IT DOWN AND ROSE IT BACK UP.


"If he is his own father, then your theology contradicts logic and is therefore logically impossible."


Logic has nothing to do with this. I think I've said this over and over. God was before logic,right. This doesn't come by logic. The apostles received revelation. Now if you don't receive it, you don't receive it. I believe Jesus conveyed that if you don't get it, it's not for you to get. It's not by way of your understanding which is what logic operates by. This is supposed to be a spiritual book . Not a logical book. That's where the trinity doctrine came from. It just came by looking at things logically and to make logical sense, oh...."three persons".....to our finite brains...the only way we can possibly understand the godhead is the analogy or equivalence of three persons like us where one is not the other.


But we don't read one is not the other. We read that it is the self same spirit. But wait? How can we understand that? We can't get it because it doesn't fit the natural measure of logic .


RIGHT.... IT'S NOT MEANT TO. UNDERSTANDING ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURE DOESN'T COME BY ....LOGIC......IF YOU DON'T GET IT FROM THE SPIRIT.....YOU WILL NOT HAVE UNDERSTANDING.


This is the same error that atheists have. The reason atheists are atheists to the scriptures is because they see the book as like any other trying to look for rationalization and logic.



"Now about Jesus' prayers. I don't understand how you explain it. So you think Jesus prayed to his own spirit? "


Right , Jesus prayed to his own Father which is spirit, his own Father his own Spirit. The spirit of Christ is God.


Don't get this confused with Christ when basically said he commended his spirit. That was the spirit breath of life as it was in Stephen because the spirit goes back to God who gave it. The Creator, the Father.



"When Stephen prayed to Jesus, did he pray to Jesus' body or spirit? "


Both. The body or the man is the mediator.

He called on God , the one who .....created him....the one Father who gave the spirit.


He called him .....LORD JESUS. So in your weak defense, you would have to argue the Lord Jesus created but not Father God which then denies his name as Lord as well as Almighty because then you would of made the point that if the Father didn't create, how can he be Almighty?


Either that or vice versa, Father God created but not the Lord Jesus and then you go against STEPHEN like he got the name mixed up.


You don't have one without the other.


It's the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ. To those who knew God as Jesus came so that they might know the one who sent him according to John 17 manifesting his name ...Lord Jesus...to Stephen....to Thomas.....to Peter....to all those who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ ....



All those who know.....knew the name given among men.


Scripture say Therefore my people shall know my name: therefore they shall know in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I


Thomas said my LORD and my GOD.

Handling......the LORD JESUS.


WOW.......I wasn't even intending to bring all this in how it lines up.....but ....the scripture teach.....take no thought to what you're going to say.


"Your Nestorianism forces you to divide a person into body and spirit. "


I got bible that says God is a spirit and that flesh and blood.....have not revealed it to you. I don't have to force anything. I can read about one being spirit and one being flesh and blood.


Now you can deny all this and make up another doctrine but it is a curse, it is deception.



"We pray to God as a person, not part of him."


Is his name LORD Jesus?


"Also, when you pray to Jesus, do you pray to his body or spirit?"


Both.



" Do your worship his body or spirit? Or do you do it to his person?"


All of the above. He's my Lord and my God. Like Thomas said. It's my LORD GOD.... PERIOD. So all this trivial stuff about which part..... you're making it about which part because you're stuck in distinctive persons so now you're trying to convert persons to parts.


When is it going to register that it's one Lord God like he said "by myself"?


Scripture emphasizes one over and over and over and over even when it says these three.... still brings it back to one. Just one name.


Scripture teaches his name is one.


Then folks that don't believe in just one Lord counter argue coining the name "oneness" for others that just believe what the scripture emphasizes over and over and over and unto everlasting word.


"Also, how do you make sense of Jesus using pronouns for him and the Father? Like calling himself I/me and the Father you. Pronouns refer to persons, not parts. Do you ever have your body talk to your spirit? Why would Jesus' body talk to his spirit? "


This is easy. Stop or refrain from trying to "make sense" . Jesus spoke many things the apostles did not understand. They didn't make sense of it. Jesus expounded unto them. Jesus is Lord and now the Lord is that spirit so the spirit has to give understanding. These scriptures are what Jesus spoke. If you can't understand them as written, you simply need understanding.


Adding to them is not understanding, it's private interpretation.


I am just about out of character space so in summarizing an answer to the last questions:


The Lord Jesus was God manifest with us made of a woman unto us one God the Father is the Lord Jesus.

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Round 4

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•••
#2

Interestingly "Lord" means keeper of the bread or loaf guardian...And we know what the guy can do with 5 loaves, 2 fish and salad accompaniment.

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•••
#1

Isn't the Father's name PeeWee Herman?