I remember a case not all that long ago when the findings of a researcher (it might've been a report card for then-Senator Harris indicating she was one of the least productive members of Congress) were pounced upon by Republicans for one reason or another.
In response, that researcher got upset, claimed his/her findings were being misrepresented, and scrubbed the page from the internet. I don't believe this is actually what happened; more like, what they were saying amounted to “I, the source of this knowledge, did not consent to said knowledge being used to support this ideology, and I conflate doing so with misrepresentation of said knowledge.”
Some of you may remember the story and it is sort of old news at this point, but I think there wasn't enough discussion around this idea: that a fact can be “properly” or “improperly” used depending on the originator's intent, as opposed to facts being in themselves neutral things that belong to nobody and to everybody. Or alternately, the idea that information which would be used for “wrong” purposes should be stifled; for example, FBI reporting on race and crime.
The idea isn't completely without merit. If you peeped on a woman in the shower and photographed her without her knowledge or consent, that is simply “knowledge of her unclothed appearance” but very serious moral problems would arise from this, or from thereafter disseminating said information to the public. In contrast, that same woman has a right to share a nude selfie with her boyfriend or husband. So this is an example of facts having proper/improper use based on the originator's intent. We can also say more broadly that privacy rights are the same way.
But to what extent can this be said about research or statistics?