Exodus 20 is the source of the Ten Commandments given to the Israelites [not just Jews, as many interpret, now, but the entire House of Israel. After all, Moses, himself, was of the House of Levi, not Judah] by God through Moses. Verses 2 & 3 contain the topic of the first commandment, the whole of which is "I am the LORD thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. Thou shalt have no other gods before me." [Holy Bible [KJV] Exodus 20: 2, 3]
The first sentence is a reminder of their present condition of freedom from bondage in Egypt by the direct intervention of "I Am" to take them out of Egypt to restore their freedom. But the second sentence is a critical description, and it ought to be understood in its context of the Israelites having "...no other gods before me."
Does this mean there are no other gods in existence but him, or that none should have greater allegiance by the Israelites [or, by extension, anybody else] than to him? I suggest the latter, and such is by no means a claim that there are no other gods, but that, among them, he, "I Am," [for that is the name of him he gave to Moses] is to be given their greatest allegiance and adoration. Therefore, there is not a single god, as some allege, but multiple gods, of whom "I Am" is the greatest. Polytheism, then, is the proper adoration of man, among whom there is a "greatest" among them, and that but one should be the "master" of them all, but that others do have purpose. Purpose, for example, that one should be the Savior and Redeemer of all mankind, i.e., Jesus the Christ, or that still another should serve as a Comforter, and a testator of truth, the Holy Spirit. And we will fond, in time, that still others have still other functions of necessity for us, but, again, only one "master" and "Father."
