Does the Holy Bible claim it is a perfect, infallible book?

Was he an atheist pretending to be a Catholic or an open atheist? I am confused.

100% atheist

Supersessionism

100% atheists don't exist. The Bible says fools are atheists.

You guys could organize a debate on here or a live one elsewhere

Human organisms are usually 99.9% human organisms, save for a few surgical implants and of course essential symbiotic micro organisms that hitch a ride from time to time.

Whereas theism and atheism are two ways of assessing acquired, stored and shared data, whilst also allowing for the acquisition storage and assessment of each others assessed data. So in that sense 99.9% of human organisms are 99.9% the same too.

Outcomes may vary slightly.

For example:

A. GOD is real.

B. Is GOD real.

And there are no 100% fools? That, itself, seems foolish.

"love" in English, is 7 different words in Greek.

Sexual love = Eros

Parental love = Storge

Unconditional/sacrificial ( =Agape

Loyalty affection= Philia

I only recall 4 what are the other three?

And while we are on the subject: this verse below appears to blows any concept of any type of love for anyone or anything clean out of the water, don't you think?

"If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple". Luke14:26 kjv

I suppose we could add this too:

Suppose ye that I am come to give peace on earth? I tell you, Nay; but rather division:

For from henceforth there shall be five in one house divided, three against two, and two against three.

 The father shall be divided against the son, and the son against the father; the mother against the daughter, and the daughter against the mother; the mother in law against her daughter in law, and the daughter in law against her mother in law. Luke:12:51-53

Yes . I read all the love peace and harmony in both those BIBLICAL verses, don't you?

The other three Greek "loves" are Ludus [playful, flirtatious], Pragma [practical, committed to duty, loyalty, understanding], and Philautia [bifurcated into both healthy self-care and unhealthy narcissism].

Your verse citations of apparent hate brought by Christ are examples of why I [and many others, including in religious scholarship] maintain the Bible, while honored as the word of God, was likely inspired perfectly, but not interpreted by man perfectly [since God did not actually write a single syllable with the exception, perhaps, of the plates allegedly containing the Ten Commandments. I say "alleged" because we s9mply do not have those artifacts today. the Bible is therefore NOT infallible due to errant translation, even by original authors. That is why we must take the advice of James [James 1] seriously and with purposeful intent to seek God on prayer for personal revelation to us of what is wisdom & truth in the scriptures, and what is not. The claim that direct revelation from God discontinued after the first century C.E. is simply nonsense. Why would God remove himself from our honest pursuit of truth? Doubt is a truth killer. That is what is meant by serious and purposeful intent to know.

Jesus is considered a messenger of love while simultaneously speaking of bringing division (e.g., Matthew 10:34, Luke 12:51) because the division he refers to is not his ultimate goal, but rather the 

inevitable consequence of demanding total, uncompromising commitment to God's love and truth in a world prone to selfishness, injustice, and corruption. 

In this context, the "division" and the "sword" he mentions are interpreted as:

1. A Call to Absolute Allegiance: Jesus taught that love for God must surpass love for family, traditions, or societal norms. This radical reordering of priorities forces a choice between following his path of self-giving love or maintaining the status quo.
2. A Divider of Light and Darkness: Just as light inevitably separates itself from darkness, Jesus' truth acts as a dividing line between those who accept the gospel and those who reject it.
3. A Requirement for True Peace: While he is the "Prince of Peace," the peace he brings is spiritual wholeness and reconciliation with God, not just the absence of conflict. He indicated that true, lasting peace cannot be achieved through compromise with evil.
4. A Consequence of Following Truth: The division is often caused by the resistance of the world to his message of compassion, justice, and repentance, rather than by a desire for conflict on his part.
5. Separation from Corruption: The "fire" and "sword" he brings are interpreted as a purification process meant to cleanse lives and society from immorality and injustice. 

Ultimately, the goal of his message was to unite humanity with God. The division described in the Gospels is presented as a temporary, painful consequence of choosing to follow him in a broken world. 

Your verse citations [Luke14:26 kjv &Luke:12:51-53] of apparent hate brought by Christ are examples of why I [and many others, including in religious scholarship]

Well they are hardly words of love, peace and tolerance now, are they? The only "love" mentioned in those verses that intend to create division is Jesus ordering everyone to love him or else.

maintain the Bible, while honored as the word of God, was likely inspired perfectly, but not interpreted by man perfectly [since God did not actually write a single syllable ,[.......]

I think it is obvious to anyone that the bible isn't "perfect". It is a contradictory, ambiguous classical mess from full of half stories

with the exception, perhaps of the plates allegedly containing the Ten Commandments. I say "alleged" because we s9mply do not have those artifacts today.

No we don't. But to be clear, after it is said that Moses destroyed the first set he went back up the mountain where "the lord" said he would write another copy:  “Cut two stone tablets like the first ones, and I will write on them the words that were on the first tablets, which you broke".Ex34kjv.

But that wasn't the case, was it? Because we also know from the same story, same chapter that it was actually Moses himself that rewrote the covenant of the 10 commands:

"And he[Moses] was there with the Lord forty days and forty nights; he did neither eat bread, nor drink water. And he wrote upon the tables the words of the covenant, the ten commandments.Ex34:28kjv.

The claim that direct revelation from God discontinued after the first century C.E. is simply nonsense. Why would God remove himself from our honest pursuit of truth?

Good question. Why indeed? But we do have this as maybe a clue to the answer, don't we:

 And the Lord said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years. Gen6:3kjv

and why was it that god withdrew "his spirit"?

It could we be that it has something to do with god having a problem with his own son's and couldn't control them? And I notice here that once again that mankind carried the blame for this "sins" of his own offspring. Lets see:

And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,

That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.Gen6:1-2kjv

the Bible is therefore NOT infallible due to errant translation, even by original authors.

So who's translation/s are to take as the correct translation, Yours?

Ultimately, the goal of his message was to unite humanity with God

You really are shite at reading your bible. I won't even bother to explain why.

...verses that intend to create division is Jesus ordering everyone to love him or else.

Again, is that not an issue of potential poor translation [either innocently, or by intended corruption] and not representative of what Christ actually may have said?

why was it that god withdrew "his spirit"?

"And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." This is the Lord God speaking [Matthew 7: 23]. He is saying he will not abide the presence of evil, a pattern set when Satan and his minions were cast out of heaven. Either evil is removed, or else God and the Holy Spirit will withdraw from evil. The two will not long abide together.

According to Christian theology, 

Jesus' mission was to reconcile humanity to God and unify all things under God's rule. This concept is central to the New Testament, emphasizing that through Jesus' death and resurrection, divisions caused by sin are overcome, and a new, unified humanity is created. 

Key Aspects of This Unity

1. Reconciliation of All Things: Colossians 1:20 highlights that through Christ, God reconciled all things to Himself, including those on earth and in heaven.
2. Breaking Down Barriers: Jesus broke down the "dividing wall of hostility" between different groups, such as Jews and Gentiles, creating one new humanity.
3. Purpose of Unity: The goal of this unity is to bring glory to God and serve as a witness to the world, demonstrating the love and truth of the gospel.
4. Unity in Diversity: This is not a forced uniformity but a unity in diversity, reflecting God's triune nature and transcending cultural or linguistic differences. 

Biblical Basis

1. John 17: Jesus prayed for his disciples to be one, just as he and the Father are one, so that the world might believe.
2. Ephesians 1:10: Speaks of God’s plan to "gather together in one all things in Christ".
3. Philippians 2: Calls believers to humility, following the example of Christ, to foster peace and unity. 

This theme is considered the heart of God's eternal plan for the ages, intended to restore harmony to a world distorted by sin. 

 Its entry is by reading the words, but who wrote the words[ of the bible]? Men and women did; all of it, cover to cover. Anything man does is imperfect until he, himself, becomes perfect in all respects. We're not there, yet.

So we have a imperfect book full of words.

So, anything we do, ever have done, or ever will do until the day of perfection is blessed upon us, is flawed to some degree.

Imperfect and flawed.

Just one of the problems: The Bible, as we know it today, has been subject to translation from "original" languages [Hebrew and Greek] for 1600 years, at least.

With much lost and gained in translation?

Another problem: "the Bible" did not exist in antiquity, The "books" were separate documents, not a cohesive collection. A work that may still, 1600 years later, be in progress.

So, where do we get off claiming the Bible's "infallibility?"

Indeed , Where? especially when , by your own admission it is imperfect and flawed. But this hasn't stopped the likes of you preaching from your "imperfect and flawed" book that has been submitted to various translation and misinterpretations over the millennia

The Bible is infallible because it is God’s inspired WORD. The errors we see in the Bible are human errors and translation errors which the HolyGhost was sent to remedy.

The Bible is infallible because it is God’s inspired WORD. The errors we see in the Bible are human errors and translation errors

So it is- as they say- not worth the paper it is written on.

which the HolyGhost was sent to remedy.

Which parts did the ghost remedy. And what is your biblical evidence that it was the purpose that a ghost was sent.

John 14:26

The advocate ,the Holy Spirit whom the Father will send in my name will teach you everything .

You ignore that I have at hand, a means to overcome the problems of translation of biblical text. I can go to the source of that inspiration to be helped to un derstrand what is trying to be said. It's called revelation, my friend, and it is real and useful today.

Revelations, divine-truths, understanding and spiritual insights come directly from the Holy Spirit.

Read John 14:26, John 16:13, 1 Corinthians 2:10 and Revelation 22:17.

There are many other verses, as well, telling us this. But, I prefer a broader read than singular verses. I've read the Bible, cover-to-cover, in four separate languages, and much prefer the broader interpretation than singular verses provide, thanks. I've also read the Quran in two languages and have the identical attitude therein. Not curiously, the previously noted Spells for the Coming Forth by Day also teaches the principle of obtaining revelation from God. There's even some allusion to the same phenomenon [though not in discussion of a diety] in the Wiccan Book of Shadows.

Surprisingly the more you read about the Bible the more doubts creep in Eg Bart Ehrman.

That may be Bart Ehrman's problem, no? For me, it's just the opposite. But then, I am utilizing more than an English Bible in my research, which, truth be told, may not be the best language representation for the Bible. I also use French, Italian, and Greek. The German, I've heard, is quite good. And, I believe in direct revelation, whereas, I understand, Ehrman lost his faith. Quelle domage.

He lost his faith after reading the original version of the Bible first written in Hebrew and Greek and the original manuscripts.

There is no "original version" of the Bible, in either Hebrew or Greek, but in Latin; the Vulgate, so Herman, if he is the source of that claim, is talking through his hat. For a PhD on the subject, he would not be that dumb. We do not even have a single scroll's original script, let alone the entire book. No "Bible" existed prior to Constantine's commission of it in the 4th century CE. The oldest scrolls of either Hebrew or Greek were apparently written 300 - 400 BCE by current paper/ink dating technology, and those, at best, are what Constantine's hired translators used.

which the HolyGhost was sent to remedy.

Which parts did the ghost remedy. And what is your biblical evidence that it was the purpose that a ghost was sent.

The advocate ,the Holy Spirit whom the Father will send in my name will teach you everything .

I asked you which parts of the bible were "remedied" by the ghost?

So you don't know then. So this is just another load of old cobblers made up in the attempt to escape the corner that you have once again painted yourself into.

You ignore that I have at hand, a means to overcome the problems of translation of biblical text. I can go to the source of that inspiration to be helped to un derstrand what is trying to be said. It's called revelation, my friend, and it is real and useful today.

Well for all you crowing about YOUR means of translation of BIBLICAL text is unknown to me as are your "sources of inspiration".

Regardless, by your own admission the bible is not "flawless" and it is "imperfect".

So therefore you have rendered all bibles written in the English language pointless and redundant.

The Holy Spirit remedies the fallen nature of humanity by empowering, guiding , sanctifying and comforting believers, making them more like Jesus Christ. It also remedies the spiritual weakness, separation from God, and corruption caused by sin.

YOUR means of translation

Did I say my method of inquiry to know what is true win scripture is an effort of "translation?" No. Don't put words in my mouth.

by your own admission the bible is not "flawless" and it is "imperfect".

This string is mine, and my post #1 clearly states: "So, where do we get off claiming the Bible's 'infallibility?'" Yes, that is what I believe: the Bible is not infallible.

you have rendered all bibles written in the English language pointless and redundant.

No, I have not. I am very careful to write what I think, and that is not the conclusion to which I arrived on this string. Re-rerad my post #1. Re-read my post #15 ["The Bible, itself, does not declare its alleged infallibility."] Re-read my post #15 ["the Bible, alone, is not the only scripture in which I have personal assurance of the existence of, and supreme authority of God." Re-read my post #20 ]"...even inspired, as prophets were, how they interpret "inspiration" varies widely from what may have actually been inspired."] Re-read my post #39 ["...we must take the advice of James [James 1] seriously and with purposeful intent to seek God in prayer for personal revelation to us of what is wisdom & truth in the scriptures, and what is not. The claim that direct revelation from God discontinued after the first century C.E. is simply nonsense. Why would God remove himself from our honest pursuit of truth? Doubt is a truth killer. That is what is meant by serious and purposeful intent to know." Re-read my post #49 ["I have at hand, a means to overcome the problems of translation of biblical text. I can go to the source of that inspiration to be helped to un derstrand what is trying to be said. It's called revelation, my friend, and it is real and useful today."] Therefore, any Bible in any language can be a better source to understand the will of God than virtually any other book, but that does not discount all books. Truth is found in diverse places.

There is no original version of the Bible in either Hebrew or Greek, but in Latin the Vulgate.

You are wrong . The Latin version is a translation of the original Bible. The Bible’s original text were primarily in Hebrew with some parts in Aramaic for the Old Testament, and Koine Greek for the New Testament. The Latin Vulgate translation by St Jerome while not an original language but a translation.

Significant Greek and Hebrew Bible manuscripts have survived from antiquity , although the original handwritten documents (autographs) have not. Instead thousands of ancient copies ,some dating back over 2000 years have survived allowing scholars to reconstruct the text with high confidence.

Bart Ehrman studied thousands of surviving Greek, Syriac and Coptic manuscripts(hand-written) copies that were made centuries after the originals.