ServusDei

Everything that exists is because of something that preceded it. That does nothing for your claim.


Did I make the claim that global peace and unity has occurred? I don't believe I did. Global peace and unity will never work, here, because of the fallen nature of Man.


So, if I take a baby and never mention anything to it, it will be an atheist? The first humans would've been atheist and at some point, humans became theists. Seeing as we are all brainwashed by those before us, according to you, it would seem then that for a deity to have been introduced into the minds of such naturally atheistic humans, a deity would've had to have existed.


Are you ever going to try and prove atheism at some point? I honestly would love to read what you deem to be the evidence for atheism, other than "because I said so".

ServusDei

Because you both are killing me here. Jesus created the world as the Son (Eternal Word); His human nature did not create the world. I will not stick myself in your other arguments. It just irked me that nobody was saying this. Have a good one!

ServusDei

It's not copies, actually. The belief is they had a common Q Source, which is for Jesus' sayings not anything else. However, this only applies to the Synoptic Gospels, i.e. Matthew, Mark, and Luke. John is very different from the other three. Although, European art has at times made him Europeanized, in the Catholic religion, at least, how he is depicted changes on where the art is from or the artist. Hence, you can find an African, European, Indian, Middle Eastern, East and South-East Asian Jesus in art. To my knowledge, only Black Hebrew Israelites deny he was Middle Eastern, and I am sure some American Evangelicals as well, which is quite humorous. Although you view religion as a means of division and a cause for harm, which has historically occurred. Your atheism is no better historically. And if we're being fair, it's the religious that have been the largest voices for peace and unity in the history of the world.


Atheism disproves Theism? Wow. That was like such a good argument. I see why you say everyone is brainwashed now.

ServusDei

I will try to make this as clear to you as possible. Your claim was that the statement was a dogmatic declaration that pertained to the destination of unbaptized infants. The issue with your claim is firstly, the fact that the Church clergy petitioned to define the destination of unbaptized infants 400 years after this council. So, again, this action seems to show that your claim is false, unless the almighty Linate knows more than the Church Herself. Secondly, if you were correct, to where are they headed? Is it eternal hellfire or peaceful limbo? And seeing as the text pertains not just to unbaptized infants, but even non-believers (without personal sin of course), if any of them were not to have committed a mortal sin in their lifetime, would they join these unbaptized infants? Finally, the most obvious issue is that you have to deduce it is referring to unbaptized infants. For a council that is making a dogmatic declaration on unbaptized infants, it's a shame they refuse to even mention unbaptized infants.

I would request though, because you claim this to be dogmatically defined, can you please show me where Thomas de Vio was tried for heresy, or even thought of as a heretic, for proposing that unbaptized infants can be saved in his commentaries on the Summa. It was post-Florence, so I am sure that because it was dogmatically defined that he met repercussions for heresy, no?




I think modern popes who say slavery is intrinsically immoral would be surprised at your theory that generations of children can morally be kept in slavery due to the debts owed by their ancestors. Your theory is these popes are just mistaken though and its your understanding thats right?

No, that's not what I posited actually. Your claim is that when popes state "slavery is intrinsically immoral" that applies even to just titles of servitude/slavery. If I follow your claim to its logical conclusion, then you would also posit that the Church is against taking prisoners in war and for crimes, right? Does it then follow that St. Paul promoted immorality when not telling Christian masters to emancipate their slaves? I'll continue to ask until you're able to respond. When you say, "debts owed by their ancestors", how far back do you mean? The purpose of debt slavery, which is still unofficially practiced today sometimes, is to pay off debt with labor. Once the debt is paid off the slave is generally freed. Again, whether the child is considered a slave depends on the law applying it, e.g. Roman Law. However, you still have not presented an argument of what is intrinsically immoral about entering yourself into slavery to pay off a debt.



So your theory also is the millenieums long understanding that humans are born into original sin could be mistaken all this time? Im curious how many people in all of Christian history got the memo on that. Age of reason starts original sin? Ive never read anyone argue that like you imply. Or who other than babies stsrts becoming guilty of original sin. That Florence quote saying baptism is the only way to save babies. Do you call this unauthoritstive dicta? I dont know how else you'd wiggle around it

Nope, that's not my theory. Age of reason doesn't start original sin. What I did say however was, "The statements of the council would apply generally to those beyond age of reason." Are you going to continue to strawman me or are actually going to present evidence against what I've actually said? And, no I actually agree that baptism is the only way to save babies, ordinarily of course. Anything else? Do I need to explain ordinary vs. extraordinary means of salvation to you or are you grown enough to do it yourself?


So your theory is even though popes have said interest is immoral its not immoral as long as they call it a cost of doing business? And profit is ok as long as its looked at as a time value of money? Yes some of those popes might have said basic expenses can be applied to loans but as long as we redefine all terms suddenly interest and profit is OK? You dont see this at all as potentially slippery logic? I understand philosophy need not be slippery but thats the way you are treating it, and the only way you can change all these teaching is engaging in slippery logic. Interest is immoral changes to excessive interest is immoral and you view yourself as taking things out of context? I can see maybe a cost of doing business interrst allowance if the original popes allowed it. But at least on the profit point its slippery logic. I think to my understanding that popes originally thought asking for profit is unchristian but suddenly its only excessively asking for profit as long as its called a time value of money

I never mentioned cost of doing business. Do you want to talk about profit or interest (interest is a form of revenue, not profit, by the way)? See, the fact you don't know the difference between the two is revealing, or you're doing it intentionally. And no, my point was that how money was viewed changed over time, from being sterile to having economic potential. This therefore changed how usury was applied to interest. What you are essentially arguing is that the Church said X1=Y and later said X2≠Y, and that this is a contradiction because they are both X. In reality, the subscripts represent different X values. So, although they are refering to interest and usury, the understanding of money is no longer the same as it was. Since money is no longer the same, you cannot judge money on how it used to be but rather what it currently is. An economist example, you wouldn't, and shouldn't, treat fiat currency as if it were standard currency. Likewise, why would the Church treat money, that now is looked at with economical potential, as if it were sterile? Explain that logic to me.


ServusDei

On the contrary, there are actually four biographies written about Him from the same century. Having read them I agree with the assertions that were made afterwards. So, what makes him delusional? What evidence do you have for this claim other than "I don't believe in God"?


As I previously stated, St. Thomas Aquinas gives his Quinquae Viae as logical evidence for the existence of God. Ergo, He is a logical possibility. As to your definition of universal materialism, if the material exists before the creator, then he isn't a true creator he is more of what is referred to as a "divine craftsman", e.g. Demiurge, Mormon god. That follows suit with creatio ex creatio. If however, the creator truly created the material world, then the creator would have to be immaterial for if not then we would be in the same place as before asking who created this already created being. This follows suit with creatio ex nihilo or Dio.


Well, if we are all brainwashed then you're brainwashed so I shouldn't listen to you because you're brainwashed and can't be trusted. And if that's the case then you cannot trust anything you believe because someone brainwashed you to believe it, or did they?


Your view of miracles is quite the funny. Also, redefining it as just an improbable, positive outcome is just disingenuous to what it actually means. Arbitrarily picking the world population and saying "weird stuff happens" is not what defines a miracle, but rather the recognition of anomalies/outliers. Is it that all apparitions are hallucinatory, or maybe you just don't like them so you just call them hallucinations? Maybe you do that because you're brainwashed. Who knows?


Are you positing that philosophy is a myth? Or myth based?


Ah, yes, because human beings commit evil acts, against the wishes of God, that truly has disproved His existence. Although it is depressing the hard life of your parents that's merely evidence of the fallen nature of man, not the inexistence of God. Now, as a catch-22 here (I never liked that book by the way), seeing as you were conditioned by a secular and non-religious society, aren't therefore projecting your brainwashing onto everyone else?


What's even funnier about your last statement is that we've had Christians in China and India for almost 2000 years already. Also, don't know if you've read the news lately but those "local bods" turned into about 2.5 billion people.


ServusDei

First, philosophy isn't mushy. It's very logical and precise, something I see you don't like, but mushy no. Is the claim that anything taken out of its original context directed at me? Because it seems everyone time I take your arguments and bring them to a logical conclusion, we arrive at a crossroad of contradiction.

Ex: You claim that the destination of unbaptized infants was dogmatically defined at the council of Florence. Somehow, 400 years later, before Vatican I, the clergy were petitioning to define the destination of unbaptized infants going to limbo/hell (see citation from last comment three months ago). If you're right, then the Catholic Church doesn't even know what it dogmatically defines. Looking at this objectively, it seems the Church disagrees with your view that the statement was previously dogmatically defined. Clearly I should take your word for it, right? Maybe I am just slithering my way out of it, right? Also, if you're going to lie about my beliefs, do a better job. I do not believe that origianl sin doesn't apply to unbaptized infants. Of course, you couldn't cite where I said this, but hey, I'm just slithering my way out of it I guess.


I also never questioned what original sin meant, I have known its meaning for years now. Also, no, you haven't shown how any of the beliefs were understood. What you have done is cite sources and say what you claim them to mean. Then I came along and said you were wrong, cited sources and brought your positions to their logical conclusions and we're still here waiting for you to properly defend your position. But you can't. What's even funnier is you say that I brush off 2000 years of less official understanding, but I personally agree with them. What doesn't follow is non-dogmatic teaching saying that they go to limbo, sometimes hell, and a true statement saying that God can save them if He wants. I'll show you an example. If you follow tradition, or have read the Divine Comedy, Pope. St. Gregory the Great prayed endlessly for the salvation of the pagan emperor Trajan, who was already dead and in hell. God granted his prayer and gave him a warning afterwards. St. Thomas Aquinas mentions this in the Summa as an example of extraordinary grace. The issue you have is you want the Church to teach that there is no hope for others and through this can show contradictions and how evil it is. On the contrary, the Church never declares that any individual is in hell. Are there rules that exist that one must follow? Yes. Is this an absolute? No. Again, St. Paul discusses this in the Bible when talking about the salvation of the Gentiles and how God judged them differently. You failing to understand a concept is not my fault. Your inability to comprehend ordinary vs. extraordinary salvation is a fault on you for not studying it. You can disagree that it exists, sure, but that doesn't mean the Church now doesn't hold to extraordinary means for salvation or has never. But, hey, maybe this is me slithering my way out of it, right?


ServusDei

To start off this response, I don't know what religion you thought I followed but Catholicism is against materialism (CCC 285, 2124). If you have some other understanding of what materialism, or universal materialism, is then please do share with the class to prevent further confusion.


Another correction of one of your errors, this "bloke" claimed to be the Son of God, not a god, and also claimed to be God. You also claim that he's deluded but failed to show any real evidence for that claim (not a surprise). Also, for centuries Christianity spread through word not the sword. Now, I do agree that governments did try subjugating masses throughout history in the name of Christ, yet this is nothing new for governments, as I am sure you're aware of being that atheist governments love not just mass subjugation but the slaughter of its own subjects. What's even more humorous is calling everyone numpties. This is quite strange as all these numpties have made the most contributions to the math, science, philosophy, et cetera that you yourself know. So, if they're numpties I can only imagine what that makes you who has contributed nothing.


When you say there is no evidence of God's existence, to what standard are you basing this claim? Philosophically, I can point you to the Quinquae Viae (Five Ways) of St. Thomas Aquinas. Maybe, I'll even just point you to the "charlatan/bloke", as you refer to Him, and you can debunk his own claims. Maybe you can explain the Eucharistic miracle in Buenos Aires 1996. Explain the creation of the universe, you seem to have all the answers. If your argument is the need for empirical data, this is fallacious as, in what way or you to measure repeated material phenomena on a being that is outside of space and time? This is called a category error. Also, the posit of "mass brainwashing" is quite humorous, although not surprising from such childish minds. Pray tell, where is your credible evidence for this? Methinks you have none to offer. Also, is it just the Roman Catholic Church or the entirety of the Catholic Church? You seem heavily influenced by Protestant thought, so it would be unsurprising you have no idea that other rites exist besides that of the Roman. Positing that no credible evidence has been given to you is also quite a dishonest thing to say. However, it seems that the only evidence that you'd truly except would be that of the likes given to St. Thomas the Apostle.


Onto your last childish outburst. All this shows is you've never read the Bible. Even the Israelites, to whom God made very clear His existence, rejected Him over, and over, and over, and over. They even earn the nickname, "stiff-necked people". What's even more humorous is the last time God "popped down" He was crucified. The claim that you'd undoubtedly believe is quite questionable, or perhaps you're right, you'd recognize that He does exist and still turn your back on Him anyways.

ServusDei

1274 St. Thomas Aquinas, Summa Theologica, II-II, Q. 78, A. 1 & 2

1431-1433 St. Bernardino of Siena, On Contracts and Usury

1515 The Fifth Lateran Council declares that Montes Pietatis are not usurious.

1745 Pope Benedict XIV, Vix Pervenit

1917 Code of Canon Law, Can. 1543


Although you dislike the development of doctrine this timeline will show you the Church's view of interest and usury in the past thousand years. The issue you have is that you believe the understanding of money is unchanged, which if that were the case there might be credence to what you say. However, the understanding of money has completely changed from what it was 1000 years ago. Originally, money was deemed to be sterile, a consumable. As economics develop so does His Church. As you will see, as the views on what money is develop, so does how usury and money interact. Money stops being viewed solely as a medium of exchange but an actual economic factor with future potential. Hence, if you were to try to explain the time value of money to someone form 1000 AD, they would look at you like you had three heads.


Your argument against alleged contradictions is the same one that atheists use against the Bible. I don't care if you think something is a contradiction. Prove it to be one. The fact that, as you have said multiple times, you have ceded ground to me, and not vice versa, says a lot.


As to your comment on non-baptized infants, I already responded to you originally. My statement hasn't changed since then. If you would like to try and prove me wrong, be my guest.


As to your ridiculous constitution dilemma, prove it with the Catholic Church. I'm still waiting. I also didn't know that the Catholic Church posits new, secret meanings. I thought it was a development of doctrine. Weird. But as a secondary question, is it that you posit that doctrine cannot develop overtime with the births of new ideas in the world?


In regard to your questions on slavery, first, yes, the belief that slavery is intrinsically immoral doesn't apply to the just titles of servitude/slavery. If it did, then that means a state could never have prisoners of war and prisoners convicted of crimes. That would be illogical. Debt slavery is not immoral, no. As to whether the children born into this slavery shall remain in slavery depends on the law. If we follow Roman Law, then was they shall remain slaves as well. If you do not want to follow Roman Law and say that the children won't be considered slaves, that's fine. Can you show the immorality? Maybe a Bible verse here and there? But mind you, as I asked you months ago, is St. Paul promoting immorality when he tells Christians to treat their slaves right instead of emancipating them?

ServusDei

He's not sincere, man (at least that how he seems to me). You can read earlier in this thread where I responded to all of his claims. He actually ceded ground on every issue whether he liked to or not. He's just trying to restate what he originally said without having to continue with the thread that seemingly ended months ago.

ServusDei

Can. 867 §1. Parents are obliged to take care that infants are baptized in the first few weeks; as soon as possible after the birth or even before it, they are to go to the pastor to request the sacrament for their child and to be prepared properly for it.


The Church disagrees. If the faith of the parents is in doubt that can actually delay the baptism of the child. You learned something new.

ServusDei
Yeah but your argument still 'trust me bro' when the text and contextual evidence is more on my side. How can you cite exceptions to the rule when the exceptions are stated scattered throughout 2000 years and not said around or the same time as the quotes that say spilling your blood even doesn't save non Catholics? Plus ai says the understanding of lay Catholics was a strict rule. Feenyism didn't arise from nothing. I acknowledge you could be right be wed have to not trust what's right in front of our nose

It isn’t “trust me bro”. What good does it serve to show every exception to a rule? Let’s give this as an example. You must be baptized, right? Well, what if I am killed on the way to being baptized? That’s called “baptism by desire”. Does the Church now state that you don’t need normal baptism to be saved because there’s an exception? No. Man is bound by the sacraments and to the Church, God is not. So, the Church can state Her necessity and role in salvation, and at the same time recognize that the Almighty God can save whoever He pleases. Perfect example, God’s covenant was with who in the OT? Israel. Does that mean only Israelites could be saved? No. St. Paul states that Israelites had the Mosaic Law and were judged by that and the Gentiles were judged by the law written on their hearts. So even those who aren’t in a visible communion with Him are still fairly judged. God doesn’t cease to do this. However, it does no good for the Church to say “You do not have to be in visible communion with the Church so don’t worry about it”. That goes against what God wants of us. 


Feeneyism arose through a strict personal interpretation of Church teaching which also led him to deny other teachings like the baptisms of desire and blood. 




So hasn't the catholic church always taught that infants are born into original sin? Doesn't Florence say those who have only original sin go to hell? Then you are ignoring the historical context, there's tons of qoutes even if they aren't authoritative of popes teaching unbaptized go to hell. One pope called it stupid to think upbaptized babies dont go to hell.

You say this but at the same time want to cite Pope Innocent III (who predates the council by more than 200 years) for the basis of limbo, which isn’t hell. I am doing anything but ignoring the historical context. I recognize all the understandings of whether they go to hell, limbo, or the possibility of heaven. The fact of the matter is, the Church has never dogmatically defined where unbaptized infants go (if She did you wouldn’t have to deduce it would you?). We are subject to the sacraments, as I previously said, God is not. He can save whoever He pleases. “ 34. In the Church's tradition, the affirmation that children who died unbaptised are deprived of the beatific vision has for a long time been “common doctrine”. This common doctrine followed upon a certain way of reconciling the received principles of revelation, but it did not possess the certitude of a statement of faith, or the same certitude as other affirmations whose rejection would entail the denial of a divinely revealed dogma or of a teaching proclaimed by a definitive act of the magisterium… 37. c) In the documents of the magisterium in the Middle Ages, the mention of “different punishments” for those who die in actual mortal sin or with original sin only (“As for the souls of those who die in mortal sin or with original sin only, they go down immediately to hell, to be punished, however, with different punishments") must be interpreted according to the common teaching of the time. Historically, these affirmations have certainly been applied to unbaptised infants, with the conclusion that these infants suffer punishment for original sin. It must be observed however that, in a general way, the focus of these Church pronouncements was not on the lack of salvation for unbaptised infants, but on the immediacy of the particular judgment after death and the assignment of souls to heaven or hell. These magisterial statements do not oblige us to think that these infants necessarily die with original sin, so that there would be no way of salvation for them… 38. d) The Bull “Auctorem fidei” of Pope Pius VI is not a dogmatic definition of the existence of Limbo: the papal Bull confines itself to rejecting the Jansenist charge that the “Limbo” taught by scholastic theologians is identical with the “eternal life” promised to unbaptised infants by the ancient Pelagians. Pius VI did not condemn the Jansenists because they denied Limbo, but because they held that the defenders of Limbo were guilty of the heresy of Pelagius. By maintaining the freedom of the Catholic Schools to propose different solutions to the problem of the fate of unbaptised infants, the Holy See defended the common teaching as an acceptable and legitimate option, without endorsing it. 27. Prior to the First Vatican Council, and again prior to the Second Vatican Council, there was a strong interest in some quarters in defining Catholic doctrine on this matter. This interest was evident in the revised schema of the dogmatic constitution, De doctrina catholica, prepared for the First Vatican Council (but not voted upon by the Council)... (International Theological Commission, The Hope for the Salvation of Infants Who Die Without Being Baptized) ” It would seem that the Catholic Church never dogmatically defined the destination of unbaptized infants, according to the Catholic Church.



I showed you the quote. You do nothing to deny it.  "The sin called usury has its proper place... whenever one demands more than has been received." It said asking for anything other than what was lent is immoral. I agree its plausible to allow cost of doing business expenses on a loan but once you get into profit for the sake of profit its historically considered immoral

Again, as one of my examples, the “montes pietatis” by your understanding would be usurious. According to the Fifth Lateran Council, they were deemed not to be usurious. You then say that it’s plausible for X but still want to hold the Church to a strict understanding of “whenever one demands more than has been received”, which would make X not plausible. Let’s look at the same pope you cited (Benedict XIV), “III. By these remarks, however, We do not deny that at times together with the loan contract certain other titles-which are not at all intrinsic to the contract-may run parallel with it. From these other titles, entirely just and legitimate reasons arise to demand something over and above the amount due on the contract. Nor is it denied that it is very often possible for someone, by means of contracts differing entirely from loans, to spend and invest money legitimately either to provide oneself with an annual income or to engage in legitimate trade and business. From these types of contracts honest gain may be made.” Is he contradicting himself now? Or is it your personal understanding of what is being said that makes it seem contradictory? John Noonan in his work The Scholastic Analysis of Usury stated, "This dogmatic teaching remains unchanged. What is a just title, what is technically to be treated as a loan, are matters of debate, positive law, and changing evolution. The development of these points is great. But the pure and narrow dogma is the same today as in 1200" (400). In other words, as society develops so does doctrine. Economies do not resemble that of those centuries ago and new systems are in place that haven’t been seen. They are judged accordingly to previous teachings.




So according to you it should still be moral to take slaves from war? Perpetual slaves of all offspring isnt immoral? Thats not intrinsically immoral?

To your first question, what God makes moral or immoral cannot change. Nor can I decide whether it should or shouldn’t be moral, for whatever God makes it it is. Whether it is moral to take slaves from war? It is. These are people who want to kill you. By capturing them they can no longer do so (although this didn’t always happen and captives were also ransomed). This reasoning isn’t unjust. The Geneva Convention also allows for the labor of prisoners of war (being nice enough to require a minimum pay of 31 cents per day). We’re starting to see a common trend. Systems that were in place originally were modified and not fully done away with. Here, captured combatants are treated like regular prisoners now. Is this wrong?


In regard to the capture of the civilian populace. They were viewed in the same light as actual combatants. According to jus gentium, just as the state had a right to kill all captured combatants, they also had the right to kill the combatant population as well. Along with combatants, Christians tended towards the enslavement of the civilian as it was preferable to execution. The enslavement of offspring also follows this concept through “partus sequitir ventrum”. At the end of the day, the enslavement during war follows suit of capital punishment. Are they immoral? No, not per se. Are they necessary? Not anymore, except for the capture of combatants of course. It falls out of practice because of a lack of necessity and reason. 


If all forms of slavery are intrinsically immoral, as that seems to be what you posit, was St. Paul promoting an intrinsic immorality when telling Christian masters how to treat their slaves? If all forms of slavery are immoral, then emancipation is the only option that follows moral law, no? What about the other just forms of slavery/servitude, besides prisoners of war, i.e. punishment, debt, and voluntary? Are these immoral as well? Or do you see these as acceptable forms of slavery/servitude?




You dont make any or many arguments based on whether certain papal authoritative yet its probably your only real resort if you want to wiggle out of these clear teachings

The only mention of the authority of a teaching that you got wrong was with the destination of unbaptized infants. Other than that, our discussion has been about your lack of understanding of Catholic teachings and not the authority of said teachings. 


You talk about me wanting to "wiggle out" yet you have already ceded ground on the varying issues from saying that there is a blatant contradiction to the Catholic understanding as being plausible.


As for the quotes on the destination of infants. Again, you cite quotes saying the destination is hell or limbo on the basis that it is dogmatically defined. As I showed above, according to the Church it is not dogmatically defined, so they are in the right to believe what they wish.


ServusDei

I said that you make comments to me that have nothing to do with what is being discussed. You should probably reread. But I'll help you...

Every time you have said something to me in these forums it has nothing to do with what is being discussed.
ServusDei

1) Church and Salvation

The way those strict quotes are worded makes it look like no one outside the visible church is saved. That's bolstered by the way the teaching was taught and understood for centuries.

As it was taught and understood is what I just told you. How you are understanding it is called Fenneyism, which is a heresy. You can see this as early as St. Augustine in his work On Grace and Free Will. Even Romas 2, St. Paul, mentions how Gentiles are judged differently from the Jews. The idea of "invincible ignorance" has always existed; it complements the teaching and does not contradict it.



2) Unbaptized Infants

As I quoted, the council of Florence dogmatically defined that those with original sin go to hell. The Church teaches babies are born with original sin. Also you have to consider the way this was taught and understood.

Yet you also claimed that the quote by Pope Innocent III was the basis for limbo, which isn't hell. Again, the Church never gave an official teaching on unbaptized infants. You may apply it to unbaptized infants, if you want, but the council wasn't referring to them. The destination of unbaptized infants has not been made dogma (nor will it ever be). Even St. Thomas Aquinas, who predated the council, questioned the idea of unbaptized infants going to hell. The statements of the council would apply generally to those beyond age of reason.



3) Usury

You are ignoring that the pope I quoted said asking for more than was lent is usury. You also have to consider the way this teaching was taught and understood

I ignored nothing. You are ignoring there is a difference between usuria and interesse. You, allegedly, read these entire documents that you quoted but can't read like

4-5 pages on the teaching of usury.



4) Death Penalty

Mercy wasn't taught and understood for 2000 years?



5) Slavery

The modern church teaches slavery is intrinsically immoral. Thats not compatible even with the distinction that some slaves were prisoners of war and its even less compatible with all offspring in perpetuity can be slaves.

Again, there are two types of slavery/servitude (being the same word in Latin) in Catholic teaching. One is considered just, and the other unjust. So, yes, unjust slavery/servitude is intrinsically evil. Examples of when it is just, forced labor of prisoners, and voluntary labor for a debt (just conditions being met of course). He is not referring to either of these when talking about the intrinsic evil that is slavery, nor was the Church at Vatican II which he was referencing. 



You like to talk about what was "taught and understood at the time" and then when it's brought up you ignore it.